UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper with Answers

The Supreme Court in Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M. (the 'Hadiya case', 2018) expressly held that the right to marry a person of one's choice is integral to Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty). Article 21 has been expansively interpreted since Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) to include personal autonomy, dignity, and bodily integrity, going well beyond just the right to physical existence. The right to choose one's life partner is thus a dimension of personal liberty. Article 19 provides freedom of speech, movement, etc. Article 25 deals with freedom of conscience and religious practice. Article 29 protects cultural interests of minorities — none of these directly cover the right to marry. UPSC tests the expansive interpretation of Article 21 frequently.

The Sarkaria Commission (1983), set up to examine Centre-State relations under Justice R.S. Sarkaria, recommended that Governors should be: (i) eminent persons from outside the state; (ii) not have participated in active politics in the recent past; (iii) appointed after consultation with the Chief Minister of the state; and (iv) not be removed except for proved misconduct or incapacity. These recommendations were made to insulate the Governor's office from political partisanship. The Punchhi Commission (2010) reiterated similar recommendations. The Rajamannar Committee (1969) was a Tamil Nadu government panel on Centre-State relations, not focused specifically on Governors. The NCRWC (2000) also made some recommendations on Governors but is not the primary source for this specific set of recommendations. UPSC tests the Sarkaria Commission's mandate and key recommendations frequently.

Both statements are incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect: High Courts have the power of judicial review under Article 226, which grants them the power to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. High Courts can and do declare Central laws unconstitutional if they violate the Constitution, including fundamental rights. Statement 2 is incorrect: In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) judgment, a 13-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court held that Parliament's power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 is not unlimited — constitutional amendments that destroy or damage the basic structure of the Constitution can be judicially reviewed and struck down. The NJAC Act and 99th Amendment were struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 on exactly this basis. UPSC 2019 confirmed 'neither 1 nor 2' as correct.

Statements 3 and 4 are correct; Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Statement 3 is correct: the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 provides the detailed procedure for investigation of alleged misbehaviour or incapacity of Supreme Court and High Court judges, including constitution of an inquiry committee and its powers. Statement 4 is correct: Article 124(4) requires that a removal resolution must be passed by a majority of total membership of each House AND by not less than two-thirds of members of that House present and voting. Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2018, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Vice President Venkaiah Naidu) rejected the notice for impeachment of Chief Justice Dipak Misra — the presiding officers DO have the power to reject such notices. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 124(4) mentions 'proved misbehaviour or incapacity' without defining these terms — their meaning is not elaborated in the Constitution.

The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru — India's first Prime Minister. The primary motivation was to protect agrarian reform legislation (particularly zamindari abolition laws) from judicial challenge under the Right to Property (Articles 19(1)(f) and 31). The Supreme Court in State of Bihar v. Kameshwar Singh (1952) had earlier struck down some land reform laws as violating property rights, prompting the First Amendment to place such laws beyond judicial reach. The First Amendment also restricted free speech under Article 19(1)(a) and added grounds for reasonable restrictions. This context — judicial challenge prompting constitutional amendment — is a classic example of the Constitution-judiciary-legislature dynamic that UPSC tests repeatedly.

Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect: the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 (under the Janata government under Morarji Desai) actually RESTORED rights that had been curtailed by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 under the Emergency. It deleted the right to property as a fundamental right (Article 31), restored habeas corpus protections, limited the scope of emergency provisions, and generally rolled back Emergency-era restrictions — it did not curtail rights of armed forces under Article 33. Statement 2 is correct: in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015), a five-judge Constitution Bench struck down both the Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, 2014 and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014, holding that the NJAC violated the independence of the judiciary — which the Court held to be part of the basic structure of the Constitution. UPSC 2019 confirmed '2 only.'

Article 142 grants the Supreme Court the power to pass any order necessary for 'complete justice' in any cause or matter pending before it. However, this power is not unlimited. In Prem Chand Garg v. Excise Commissioner (1963), the Supreme Court held that an order under Article 142 must not be inconsistent with 'the substantive provisions of the relevant statutory laws' — making option B the correct statement of the mainstream UPSC interpretation. The Court in Supreme Court Bar Association v. Union of India (1998) also held that Article 142 powers are supplementary and cannot be used to 'supplant' existing substantive law applicable to a case. This means the Supreme Court uses Article 142 to fill procedural gaps or enforce justice when no other remedy exists — not to override or invalidate statutory provisions (option D is incorrect). Option A is incorrect because ECI decisions are subject to judicial scrutiny. Option C is incorrect as Article 142 orders can be challenged through review or curative petitions.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct; Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct: the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 provides an exemption list of government posts (including ministers, parliamentary secretaries, members of advisory committees, NCC officers, etc.) that do not attract disqualification even if they carry remuneration, thereby removing them from the definition of 'office of profit' for disqualification purposes. Statement 2 is correct: the Act has been amended five times — in 1960, 1992, 1993, 2006, and 2013 — with the 2006 amendment being particularly significant (enacted to retrospectively save several Delhi MLAs who had been appointed to advisory committees). Statement 3 is incorrect: the term 'office of profit' is NOT defined in the Constitution of India (Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) use the phrase without defining it), which has made it a recurring subject of litigation and parliamentary amendment. UPSC 2019 confirmed '1 and 2 only.'

All three statements are correct. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), constituted under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934 (amended by Finance Act 2016), decides the policy repo rate by majority vote — the Governor has a casting vote in case of a tie (Statement 1 correct). The Central Government of India, in consultation with RBI, sets the inflation target — currently 4% CPI (±2% band) notified for the period April 2021 to March 2026, and renewed for April 2026 to March 2031 (Statement 2 correct). RBI acts as the lender of last resort (LOLR) to scheduled commercial banks, providing emergency liquidity support against collateral to prevent bank failures and systemic crises — this is a classical central banking function (Statement 3 correct). A key UPSC distinction: the MPC decides the repo rate, but the inflation target itself is set by the government — the two institutions have distinct but complementary roles in India's inflation targeting framework.

Statutory Reserve Requirements — comprising the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) — are monetary policy instruments that enable RBI to control the credit-creation capacity of banks and thereby regulate the money supply and credit in the economy (Option A correct). By mandating that banks hold a portion of their NDTL in the form of cash with RBI (CRR) or liquid government securities (SLR), RBI can contract or expand the credit multiplier — raising reserves contracts credit; lowering them expands it. Option B (protecting deposits) is a purpose served by deposit insurance (DICGC), not statutory reserves. Option C (preventing excessive profits) is not a stated objective of CRR/SLR. Option D (vault cash requirements) is addressed by the CRR component but is a narrow description that misses the primary macroeconomic purpose of monetary control. Current CRR is 4% and SLR is 18% (as of early 2026).

Direct taxes are levied directly on the income or wealth of the taxpayer, who bears the burden without passing it on to others. Corporation tax (levied on corporate profits) and Wealth tax (levied on net wealth of individuals — abolished from FY2015-16, replaced by a surcharge, but historically a direct tax) are both direct taxes — Options 1 and 3 are correct. Customs duty is an indirect tax levied on the value of imported or exported goods; the incidence falls on the consumer through higher prices. Excise duty is an indirect tax on domestically produced goods; the burden is passed on to buyers. Hence only Corporation tax (1) and Wealth tax (3) are direct taxes — "1 and 3 only" is the answer. The distinction between direct and indirect taxes hinges on the concept of tax incidence (who ultimately bears the economic burden): direct taxes cannot be shifted; indirect taxes typically can.

Both statements are incorrect. MSP is recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) for 23 commodities comprising 7 cereals, 5 pulses, 7 oilseeds, and 4 commercial crops (including sugarcane under FRP); the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approves it — the figure of 25 in Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 fundamentally mischaracterises MSP: it is a minimum floor price — a price below which the government commits to procure from farmers — and does not cap or prevent market prices from rising above it. In fact, market prices frequently exceed MSP during good-demand or low-production periods, which is desirable. MSP is meant to protect farmers from price crashes, not to suppress prices. The CACP bases MSP recommendations on A2+FL cost (actual paid-out costs plus imputed family labour) and the government aims to fix it at at least 1.5 times A2+FL cost as per budget announcements. Hence neither statement is correct.

Stand Up India, launched on 5 April 2016 by the Department of Financial Services under the Ministry of Finance, facilitates composite bank loans of ₹10 lakh to ₹1 crore to at least one SC/ST borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up greenfield enterprises in manufacturing, trading, services, or agri-allied activities (Options A, B, D are all correct purposes). Option C — providing subsidised loans specifically to backward regions — is NOT a stated purpose of Stand Up India; the scheme targets borrowers by community (SC/ST) and gender (women), not by geography, and the loans are not subsidised (they carry market-based interest rates). Region-specific subsidised credit is served by other schemes such as PMEGP, NABARD schemes, or NER-specific programmes. The implementing agency is SIDBI, with the credit guarantee support from CGFSIL (Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Stand Up India Loans). Hence Option C is not a purpose.

Both statements are correct. UDAN (Ude Desh Ka Aam Naagrik — "Let the Common Citizen Fly"), launched on 21 October 2016 under the National Civil Aviation Policy (NCAP) 2016 by the Ministry of Civil Aviation, aims to make air travel affordable for ordinary citizens of smaller cities, towns, and remote regions by connecting unserved and underserved airports at capped fares (approximately ₹2,500 for 1-hour flight) — Statement 1 is correct. Viability Gap Funding (VGF) to airlines operating on these low-traffic, financially unviable routes is provided jointly by the Central Government (80%), Airport Authority of India, and State Governments (20% — 10% for hilly/NE states) through signed MoUs — Statement 2 is correct. The nodal agency is AAI (Airports Authority of India). As of 2025, UDAN has connected over 90 airports and the scheme has witnessed multiple phases (UDAN 1.0 through 5.0), progressively expanding regional air connectivity. Hence both statements are correct.

The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP), launched in January 2018, is monitored by NITI Aayog — not the Ministry of Rural Development — with district-level implementation supported by Central Government officers and State Governments (Statement 1 is incorrect). NITI Aayog ranks districts monthly on the "Champions of Change" dashboard based on 49 Key Performance Indicators across five themes: Health & Nutrition, Education, Agriculture & Water Resources, Financial Inclusion & Skill Development, and Infrastructure. The programme covers exactly 112 of India's most under-developed districts selected based on composite scores of lagging indicators (Statement 2 is correct). These districts are spread across 28 states. The programme operates on a "Convergence, Collaboration, Competition" framework with Central Prabhari Officers assigned to each district. The Aspirational Districts Programme was later expanded to include an Aspirational Blocks Programme (2023) covering 500 blocks. Hence 2 only.

All three are correct objectives of the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), established under NITI Aayog in 2016 as the government's flagship initiative to promote innovation and entrepreneurship. Objective 1 — Innovation Hubs and Grand Challenges: AIM creates Atal New India Challenges (ANIC) and Sectoral Innovation Launchpads for strategic sectors like agriculture, health, and energy to solve national problems at scale. Objective 2 — World-class incubators: AIM establishes Atal Incubation Centres (AICs) at universities, institutions, and corporates — 72+ operational AICs have incubated over 3,500 startups, creating more than 32,000 jobs. Objective 3 — School-level tinkering: Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) in schools (10,000+ established in 35 states and UTs) provide students access to 3D printers, robotics kits, and STEM equipment to develop problem-solving and innovation mindsets. All three represent distinct pillars of AIM's multi-level innovation ecosystem architecture. Hence 1, 2 and 3.

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) was established in 2016 under NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) — not under any ministry — making Option C correct. Its location under NITI Aayog reflects its role as a cross-sectoral, whole-of-government initiative requiring coordination across ministries of Education (for ATLs), DPIIT (for startups), Science & Technology (for research), and others — a cross-cutting mandate suited to NITI Aayog's advisory role. Option A (Ministry of Science and Technology) administers CSIR, DBT, and DST-funded research but not AIM. Option B (Ministry of Human Resource Development — now Ministry of Education) administers AICTE, UGC, and NIF but not AIM directly (though ATLs are in schools under Ministry of Education's administrative domain). Option D (Ministry of Commerce and Industry) administers Make in India and Startup India but not AIM. UPSC tested this in 2019 as a Ministry/Institution attribution question — AIM's placement under NITI Aayog is a commonly confused fact since its activities span education and science domains.

All three statements are correct. The Western Ghats are known as Sahyadri in Maharashtra; the name changes to Nilgiris where Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu meet, and further south the range continues as Anaimalai, Palani, and Cardamom Hills. Anamudi (also spelled Anaimudi) in Eravikulam National Park, Idukki district, Kerala, at 2,695 m is the highest peak of the Western Ghats and the highest peak in peninsular India south of the Himalayas. The rivers Godavari (rises at Trimbakeshwar, Maharashtra), Krishna (rises at Mahabaleshwar, Maharashtra), and Cauvery (rises at Talakaveri, Coorg district, Karnataka) all originate from the Western Ghats and flow eastward, draining into the Bay of Bengal — one of the key reasons why major deltas form on India's east coast.

All three pairs are correctly matched. Ahmedabad (known as the "Manchester of the East") and Surat are leading centres of India's cotton textile and synthetic fibre industry; Gujarat accounts for the largest share of synthetic textile production. Jamshedpur in Jharkhand hosts Tata Steel (formerly TISCO) — the first integrated private-sector steel plant — and Bhilai in Chhattisgarh hosts Bhilai Steel Plant (SAIL), one of India's largest public-sector steel plants; both were set up near coal and iron ore sources (Damodar and Bailadila regions respectively). Bengaluru (Electronics City, Whitefield) and Hyderabad (HITEC City) are India's leading IT/software export hubs, collectively contributing over 60% of India's software export revenues. Industrial geography pairings like these appear frequently in UPSC prelims.

The Tapti (Tapi) River does NOT form a delta — it forms a narrow estuary at Surat (Gujarat) where it meets the Arabian Sea. The Tapti, along with the Narmada, is one of India's major west-flowing rivers; both drain into the Arabian Sea through rift valleys (graben) rather than depositing sediment in a delta. The fast-flowing nature of the Tapti near its mouth, combined with the tidal action of the Arabian Sea, prevents delta formation. By contrast, the Cauvery (Kaveri) forms a fertile delta in Tamil Nadu — one of India's most productive agricultural areas — the Mahanadi forms the Mahanadi delta in Odisha near Paradip, and the Krishna forms a delta along the Andhra Pradesh coast between Machilipatnam and Vijayawada. The Narmada-Tapti estuary vs. east-coast deltas distinction is a classic and frequently tested UPSC geography point.

The onset of the South-West Monsoon is primarily triggered by the formation of an intense thermal low-pressure area over the Thar Desert (Rajasthan) and North-West India in May–June, as extreme summer heating of the land surface causes air to rise and creates a powerful pressure gradient between the land and the cooler Indian Ocean. This pressure gradient draws moisture-laden South-West monsoon winds from the ocean over India; the monsoon typically arrives at Kerala around June 1 and progressively advances northward, reaching Delhi by late June and the north-western plains by mid-July. Option 3 is a common distractor — the ITCZ shifts northward (not southward) in summer, following the apparent movement of the sun, which helps draw monsoon winds into the subcontinent. The subtropical jet stream over India weakens and shifts northward during summer, not strengthens, allowing the monsoon to advance.

Only Statement 1 is correct — the revenue officer in charge of collection was called the Amil. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Iqta system was borrowed from the Abbasid Caliphate, not an indigenous institution. Statement 3 is incorrect: the office of Mir Bakshi (paymaster of the army) was introduced during the Mughal period, not under the Khalji Sultans.

Jahangir (r. 1605–1627) is renowned as the greatest patron of painting among the Mughal emperors. Under his reign, Mughal painting shifted to albums (muraqqa) and individual portraits, with extraordinary attention to detail in natural subjects (birds, animals, flowers). Artists like Ustad Mansur, Abu'l Hasan, and Bishandas flourished during his reign.

Neither statement is correct. Saint Nimbarka (founder of the Nimbaraka Sampradaya) lived in the 13th century, long before Akbar (16th century). Saint Kabir (15th century) was influenced by Ramananda and the Vaishnavite Bhakti tradition, not by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi who was a Sufi saint of the Naqshbandi order born in 1564, after Kabir's death.

Kalyana Mandapas (marriage halls) are a distinctive architectural feature of Vijayanagara-period temples in South India. These are grand pillared halls attached to temples where the ceremonial divine marriage (kalyana) of the presiding deity was conducted. Famous examples include the Kalyana Mandapa at Vitthala Temple complex in Hampi. The Vijayanagara architectural style is also known for its elaborate pillared halls, gopuras, and sculpted pillars.

Option C (SOHGAURA) is CORRECT — it is NOT a Harappan site. SOHGAURA is a village in Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh, located on the Rapti river. It is famous for the SOHGAURA COPPER PLATE INSCRIPTION — one of the earliest known epigraphs of the MAURYAN PERIOD (c. 4th-3rd century BCE), written in Prakrit using Brahmi script. The inscription records administrative measures taken by Mauryan officials to provide famine relief, suggesting that the Mauryan state maintained granaries and made provisions for emergency food distribution. So Sohgaura belongs to the MAURYAN era, almost 1,500 years AFTER the Indus Valley Civilisation. The OTHER three options ARE all Harappan sites: (a) CHANHUDARO — A small but important Harappan town in Sindh province, Pakistan, on the left bank of the Indus, about 130 km south of Mohenjo-daro. Excavated 1931-36 by N.G. Majumdar and later by E.J.H. Mackay. Famous as a BEAD-MAKING CENTRE — extensive workshops with carnelian, agate, and other semi-precious stones; also lapidary and seal-making workshops. The only Harappan site without a citadel. (b) KOT DIJI — Located in Khairpur district of Sindh, Pakistan, opposite Mohenjo-daro across the Indus. It is a PRE-HARAPPAN/EARLY HARAPPAN site (Kot Diji culture, c. 2800-2600 BCE) that pre-dates and influenced the mature Harappan civilisation. Excavated by F.A. Khan in 1955-57. The site reveals fortified mud-brick walls, pottery with horned animal motifs (precursor to Harappan iconography). (d) DESALPUR — A Harappan site located in Kutch district of Gujarat, India. Excavated in the 1960s by P.P. Pandya, it shows fortified rectangular settlement with a citadel area. Yields typical Harappan pottery, bronze artefacts, terracotta figurines. UPSC 2019 official answer: C.

ALL THREE features are characteristic of Mahayana Buddhism — Option D. MAHAYANA ("Greater Vehicle") Buddhism emerged around the 1st century CE as a major branch of Buddhism, distinct from the older Theravada/Hinayana school. It introduced significant theological and ritual innovations. (1) DEIFICATION OF THE BUDDHA — Mahayana shifted from viewing the Buddha as a great human teacher (as in Theravada) to seeing him as a TRANSCENDENT, DIVINE BEING with multiple cosmic forms. The TRIKAYA (three bodies) doctrine emerged: Dharmakaya (truth body), Sambhogakaya (enjoyment body), and Nirmanakaya (manifestation body, e.g., Gautama Buddha). Multiple Buddhas were recognised — past Buddhas, future Buddhas (Maitreya), and Buddhas of other realms (Amitabha in the Pure Land). (2) BODHISATTVA IDEAL — A Bodhisattva is an enlightened being who delays final nirvana out of COMPASSION to help all sentient beings achieve liberation. This contrasted with the Theravada ARHAT ideal (individual liberation). Famous Bodhisattvas include Avalokiteshvara (compassion), Manjushri (wisdom), and Maitreya. The Bodhisattva path emphasises six perfections (paramitas): generosity, morality, patience, energy, meditation, wisdom. (3) IMAGE WORSHIP AND RITUALS — While early Buddhism aniconically represented the Buddha through symbols (footprints, empty throne, Bodhi tree, Dharma wheel), Mahayana introduced ELABORATE STATUES and IMAGES of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas, along with rituals, mantras, prayers, devotional practices (puja), pilgrimage, and merit transfer. The first Buddha images appeared in the GANDHARA and MATHURA art schools (1st-2nd century CE) under Kushan patronage. SPREAD: Mahayana spread to China, Korea, Japan, Vietnam, Tibet, and Mongolia. UPSC 2019 official answer: D.

Option C (JAHANGIR) is CORRECT. Jahangir (r. 1605-1627), son of Akbar, is widely regarded as the GREATEST PATRON OF PAINTING among the Mughal emperors. Under his rule, Mughal painting reached its CLASSICAL ZENITH. PAINTING SHIFT UNDER JAHANGIR: Jahangir DEPARTED from his father Akbar's tradition of ILLUSTRATED HISTORICAL MANUSCRIPTS (which depicted court scenes, battles, hunts, and historical events like the Akbarnama and Babarnama). Instead, he favoured: (i) MURAQQA (ALBUMS) — bound collections of individual paintings and calligraphic specimens, intended for private connoisseur viewing rather than narrative illustration. (ii) INDIVIDUAL PORTRAITS — highly detailed, naturalistic portraits of nobles, courtiers, foreign envoys (he commissioned portraits of Sir Thomas Roe and other European visitors), holy men, and even his own family. (iii) NATURE STUDIES — Jahangir was an avid amateur naturalist; he commissioned exquisite paintings of birds, animals, and flowers. The famous "Falcon" and "Zebra" paintings by Mansur Ustad and the "Turkey Cock" painting are masterpieces. JAHANGIR'S PERSONAL INTEREST: Jahangir was so passionate about painting that he wrote in his memoir (Tuzk-i-Jahangiri) that he could identify the artist of any painting in his court. He could even tell the work of different artists who had collaborated on a single painting. NOTABLE ARTISTS: Mansur Ustad (Ustad-ul-Asr — "wonder of the age"), Bishan Das, Abul Hasan, Manohar Das, Govardhan. EUROPEAN INFLUENCE: Jahangir incorporated European techniques like aerial perspective, chiaroscuro (light-shadow), and realistic portraiture brought by Jesuit missions and European visitors. (a) Humayun — introduced Persian-style painting to Mughal India; (b) Akbar — illustrated manuscripts era; (d) Shah Jahan — focused on architecture (Taj Mahal). UPSC 2019 official answer: C.

Option A is the INCORRECT statement (which the question asks for). The title "TANSEN" was actually conferred upon him by RAJA VIKRAMJIT (also known as Vikramajit) of GWALIOR, NOT by Emperor Akbar. His birth name was RAMTANU PANDEY (c. 1500-1586), born in Behat near Gwalior. He served at the court of Raja Vikramjit (and the earlier Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior) before being summoned to Akbar's court around 1562. Once at the Mughal court, Akbar gave him the title MIAN ("learned scholar") — so he came to be known as MIAN TANSEN. Later he was honoured as one of the "NAVRATNAS" (Nine Jewels) of Akbar's court. The OTHER three statements are CORRECT: (b) Tansen composed numerous DHRUPADS (the oldest surviving form of Hindustani classical vocal music) in praise of Hindu deities — Shiva, Krishna, Vishnu, Ganesha, Rama. He was a devout Hindu by birth though he served Muslim courts. (c) He composed many songs PRAISING HIS PATRONS — Raja Vikramjit, Raja Man Singh Tomar, and Akbar. Court compositions praising royal benefactors were standard practice in medieval Indian classical music. (d) Tansen INVENTED several ragas, the most famous being MIYAN KI MALHAR (a monsoon raga said to have been able to summon rain), MIYAN KI TODI, MIYAN KI SARANG, and DARBARI KANADA (composed for Akbar's court). He is credited with shaping the modern Hindustani classical music tradition. SAMADHI: Tansen's tomb is in Gwalior, beside the tomb of his Sufi master Mohammad Ghaus, where the annual Tansen Sangeet Sammelan is held. UPSC 2019 official answer: A.

The Agasthyamala (Agasthyamalai) Biosphere Reserve, established in 2001 and recognised by UNESCO's MAB Programme in 2016, straddles the southernmost Western Ghats across Kerala (1,828 sq km) and Tamil Nadu (1,672 sq km), totalling about 3,500 sq km. Its protected areas are: Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary, and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary (all in Kerala) — and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu. Together these protect exceptional endemism: the reserve harbours about 2,254 plant species including ~405 endemics, 79 mammal species, 88 reptiles, and 45 amphibian species. Option B describes the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve/Anamalai cluster; Option C refers to sanctuaries in Andhra Pradesh; Option D refers to sanctuaries around Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam. The Agasthyamalai cluster is also part of the Western Ghats UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Under Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (as it stood before the 2022 amendment), specified plant species are prohibited from collection, trade, possession, or cultivation without a licence from the Chief Wildlife Warden. Plants under Schedule VI include Beddomes' Cycas, Blue Vanda orchid, Red Vanda (Renanthera imschootiana), Pitcher Plant (Nepenthes khasiana), Kuth (Saussurea costus), and Ladies Slipper Orchid (Paphiopedilum species). The Wildlife Protection Amendment Act, 2022 significantly reorganised the schedule structure — Schedules I and II were merged and the number of schedules reduced — but the requirement for a cultivation licence for protected plants remains. This schedule addresses domestic legal protection for plants, distinct from CITES which governs international trade; CITES listing and WPA Schedule VI listing are separate, parallel protections.

All three statements are incorrect under the original WPA 1972 framework. Statement 1 is wrong: Section 11(2) of the WPA explicitly permits killing of any wild animal in bona fide self-defence or in defence of any other person; this exception also covers killing that causes property damage in certain notified cases. Statement 2 is wrong: Schedule V of the WPA (as it existed before the 2022 amendment) listed "vermin" — common species considered pests (common crow, fruit bats, rats, mice) — which may be hunted freely without any licence; Schedule V animals were specifically excluded from protection, not protected by a licensing requirement. Statement 3 is wrong: Crocodiles (all three Indian species — Mugger, Saltwater, and Gharial) are listed under Schedule I (the highest protection category), not Schedule VI which covered protected plants; the Gharial is also Critically Endangered (IUCN). This question is a classic trap testing knowledge of WPA schedule contents.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 — enacted in the aftermath of the Bhopal gas tragedy — is an umbrella or framework legislation empowering the Central Government with broad powers to take all necessary measures to protect and improve environmental quality, including coordinating actions of various central and state authorities. Section 3(2) specifically empowers the Central Government to prescribe standards for the quality of environment (air, water, soil, noise) in its various aspects and also set emission/discharge standards for industries. Statement 2 is incorrect: mandatory public participation (public hearings) in environmental clearance processes is not directly required by the EPA itself; this requirement comes from the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006 (and its 1994 predecessor) issued under the EPA — it is a delegated legislation under the Act, not a provision of the Act itself.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Ramsar Convention (adopted February 2, 1971, Ramsar, Iran; India acceded in 1982) requires contracting parties to designate at least one wetland of international importance to the Ramsar List and promote the "wise use" of all wetlands — but it does NOT create a binding legal obligation to protect and conserve all wetlands in the country; it is an obligation only toward designated Ramsar sites. Statement 1 is therefore incorrect. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 (subsequently updated by the 2017 Rules) were framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, drawing on Ramsar Convention principles. A notable feature of the 2010 Rules was the explicit inclusion of the catchment/drainage area of a wetland within the regulatory zone — an important provision making Statement 3 correct — though this was somewhat diluted in the 2017 revision.

All three pairs are correctly matched. The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal (adopted 1989, entered into force 1992) controls the trans-boundary movement of 47 categories of hazardous waste, prohibiting exports to countries lacking the capacity for safe disposal. The Rotterdam Convention on Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade (adopted 1998, entered into force 2004) requires exporting countries to obtain prior informed consent (PIC) from importing countries before shipping listed hazardous chemicals and pesticides. The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (adopted 2001, entered into force 2004) aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of POPs — a "dirty dozen" of persistent, bioaccumulative, and toxic chemicals including DDT, PCBs, dioxins, furans, and various organochlorine pesticides. All three are sometimes called the "Basel-Rotterdam-Stockholm cluster" and their secretariats are co-located in Geneva.

Ecosystem services are all the benefits that humans obtain from ecosystems, comprehensively classified into four categories by the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA, 2005): (1) Provisioning services — tangible products like food, fresh water, timber, fibre, genetic resources, and medicinal plants; (2) Regulating services — climate regulation, flood control, air purification, disease regulation, water purification, and pollination; (3) Cultural services — recreation, eco-tourism, aesthetic inspiration, spiritual value, and educational value; (4) Supporting services — the foundational processes underpinning all other services, such as nutrient cycling, soil formation, primary production (photosynthesis), and water cycling. Ecosystem services are not limited to tangible products (making Option 1 too narrow), and they are provided by natural ecosystems — not by governments or research bodies. The economic valuation of ecosystem services (natural capital) is central to environmental economics and UPSC GS3 topics on sustainable development.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 (replacing the Municipal Solid Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000) mandate source segregation of waste into at least three streams: wet/biodegradable waste (kitchen and garden waste), dry/recyclable waste (paper, plastic, metal, glass), and domestic hazardous waste (batteries, medicines, paint, pesticide containers). Under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), producers, importers, and brand owners of non-biodegradable packaging must establish systems for collecting and managing their packaging waste — this has since been strengthened by specific EPR frameworks for plastics (2022). Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2016 Rules significantly expanded coverage beyond Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) to include outgrowths in municipal areas, census towns, notified areas, special purpose areas, industrial townships, areas under industrial development authorities, tourist destinations, religious and historical places, and all areas notified by state governments — a major departure from the limited urban-only scope of the earlier 2000 Rules.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Lantana camara is a shrub native to Central and South America that was introduced to India during the British colonial period (reportedly to gardens around 1809) and has since spread aggressively across forests, grasslands, and scrublands in virtually every state; it outcompetes native vegetation and is considered one of the world's 100 worst invasive species by IUCN. Invasive alien species are recognised as the second-leading cause of biodiversity loss globally (after habitat destruction), having contributed to 40% of documented animal extinctions in the past 400 years; they impose huge economic costs estimated at $423 billion annually worldwide (IPBES 2023). Statement 2 is incorrect: Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) is native to South America (the Amazon basin), introduced to India and Southeast Asia in the 19th century; it is now one of the world's most damaging aquatic weeds, choking waterways, depleting oxygen, and harming fisheries in India's rivers, lakes, and wetlands.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The original CRZ Notification was issued on February 19, 1991, under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, to regulate development within 500 metres of the High Tide Line (HTL) along India's entire coastline and tidal-influenced water bodies up to 100 metres inland. CRZ-I includes the most ecologically and geomorphologically sensitive areas: mangroves (including a 50-metre no-development buffer), coral reefs, salt marshes, turtle nesting grounds, national parks, marine sanctuaries, and inter-tidal zones. Statement 3 is incorrect: construction is not prohibited in all CRZ zones. The CRZ Notification 2019 (replacing the 2011 notification) classifies coastal areas into four zones: CRZ-I (no construction), CRZ-II (already developed urban areas where regulated development is allowed), CRZ-III (rural areas with limited regulated construction), and CRZ-IV (water areas including islands) — each with varying degrees of permitted activity. Only CRZ-I is a near-total no-construction zone; the other three allow regulated development.

Cas9 is an endonuclease (RNA-guided DNA-cutting enzyme) associated with the CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) system. It acts as "molecular scissors" that can be directed to any specific DNA sequence in a genome using a guide RNA, then makes a precise double-strand cut. Jennifer Doudna and Emmanuelle Charpentier won the 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for developing CRISPR-Cas9 as a gene-editing tool.

Statement 1 is incorrect — TRIPS mandates that all WTO members grant patents in all fields of technology, explicitly including pharmaceuticals and agrochemicals; developing countries were given transition periods but cannot permanently exclude these sectors. Statement 2 is correct — Article 39 of TRIPS covers protection of undisclosed information (trade secrets and test data). Statement 3 is correct — TRIPS Article 12 requires copyright protection for at least 50 years from authorised publication (or 50 years from creation if not published within 50 years).

Statements 2 and 3 are correct; statements 1 and 4 are incorrect. HYDROGEN-ENRICHED COMPRESSED NATURAL GAS (H-CNG) is a blend of hydrogen and compressed natural gas (CNG), proposed as a cleaner transitional fuel for public transport. (1) ELIMINATION OF CO EMISSIONS — INCORRECT. While H-CNG significantly REDUCES carbon monoxide emissions compared to pure CNG, it does NOT ELIMINATE them. Some CO emissions still occur because CNG (the dominant component) contains carbon — combustion of methane (CH₄) inherently produces some CO and CO₂. The reduction is significant but not complete. The word "elimination" is too strong. INCORRECT. (2) REDUCES CO₂ AND HYDROCARBON EMISSIONS — CORRECT. Hydrogen has a higher energy content per unit mass than methane. When hydrogen is blended with CNG, the overall combustion is cleaner — less CO₂ produced per unit energy, fewer unburnt hydrocarbon emissions, and lower particulate matter. Studies show H-CNG can reduce CO₂ by ~5-7% and hydrocarbons by ~10-15% compared to pure CNG. CORRECT. (3) ONE-FIFTH (20%) BY VOLUME — CORRECT. Indian government and BIS standards allow hydrogen blending of up to about 18-20% by volume in CNG for use in unmodified vehicles. Higher hydrogen content (>20%) requires engine modifications. India launched a pilot project in DELHI in 2020 with H-CNG buses (using 18% hydrogen blend) for public transport. CORRECT. (4) LESS EXPENSIVE THAN CNG — INCORRECT. H-CNG is currently MORE EXPENSIVE than pure CNG because hydrogen production (especially "green hydrogen" from electrolysis) is energy-intensive and costly. The blending process itself adds cost. While H-CNG offers environmental benefits, it does not yet offer cost advantages. INCORRECT. INDIA'S NATIONAL GREEN HYDROGEN MISSION (2023) targets 5 million tonnes annual production by 2030, which may bring costs down. UPSC 2019 official answer: B.

The merger of giant black holes billions of light-years away was significant because it enabled the DETECTION OF GRAVITATIONAL WAVES — the first direct evidence of one of the most profound predictions of Einstein's General Theory of Relativity (1916). THE FIRST DETECTION: On 14 September 2015, the LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory) detectors in the US directly detected gravitational waves for the FIRST TIME — a signal designated GW150914. The signal came from the merger of TWO BLACK HOLES located ~1.3 BILLION LIGHT-YEARS AWAY. The two black holes (29 and 36 solar masses) spiraled together and merged into a single ~62 solar mass black hole, with the equivalent of 3 solar masses of energy radiated as gravitational waves in the final moments. The discovery was announced on 11 February 2016 and made headlines worldwide. NOBEL PRIZE: The 2017 NOBEL PRIZE IN PHYSICS was awarded to RAINER WEISS, KIP THORNE, and BARRY BARISH for their decisive contributions to the LIGO detector and the observation of gravitational waves. SIGNIFICANCE: (a) Confirmed Einstein's 100-year-old prediction directly. (b) Opened a new window of "gravitational wave astronomy" — observing the universe through gravity, not light. (c) Provided unprecedented insight into black hole physics. (d) Subsequent detections (~100 events by 2024) have confirmed neutron star mergers, intermediate-mass black holes, and other phenomena. (a) HIGGS BOSON — discovered earlier in 2012 at CERN's LHC, unrelated to black hole mergers. (c) WORMHOLE space travel — purely theoretical, not confirmed by these observations. (d) SINGULARITY — singularities exist at the centers of black holes but cannot be directly observed (hidden behind event horizons). UPSC 2019 official answer: B.

The ATAL INNOVATION MISSION (AIM) was established in 2016 under NITI AAYOG (National Institution for Transforming India), the Government of India's premier policy think tank. AIM is the flagship initiative of the Government of India to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship. Its location under NITI Aayog (rather than a specific ministry) reflects its CROSS-CUTTING mandate that spans education, science, technology, commerce, and industry. KEY COMPONENTS: (a) ATAL TINKERING LABS (ATLs) — Innovation hubs in schools (Class 6-12) across India, equipped with 3D printers, robotics kits, IoT devices, and other hands-on tools. As of 2024, ~10,000 ATLs are operational. (b) ATAL INCUBATION CENTRES (AICs) — Support centres for startups in universities and research institutions; ~70+ AICs operational. (c) ATAL NEW INDIA CHALLENGES — Grant funding for innovators developing solutions to specific national problems. (d) ATAL COMMUNITY INNOVATION CENTRES (ACICs) — Innovation centres in tier-2/tier-3 cities. (e) MENTOR INDIA — National network of mentors and volunteers. NAMED AFTER: Atal Bihari Vajpayee, former Prime Minister of India (1998-2004), recognized for his support of science, technology, and youth empowerment. ACHIEVEMENTS: AIM is credited with kickstarting India's "innovation ecosystem" at school level — over 1.5 crore students engaged with ATLs, hundreds of startups incubated, and thousands of patents filed. (a) DST — Department of Science and Technology runs separate programmes like INSPIRE, but not AIM. (b) Labour Ministry — unrelated. (d) MSDE — runs PMKVY and Skill India, not AIM. UPSC 2019 official answer: C.

Only Statement 1 is correct. The AIIB (established 2016) has grown to over 100 member nations including non-Asian countries such as the UK, France, Germany, Australia, and New Zealand, so Statement 3 is false. Statement 2 is incorrect: China is the largest shareholder with approximately 26% voting share; India is the second-largest shareholder with approximately 7.6%.

Statements 2 and 4 are correct. The UNCAC (2003) is the only universal legally binding anti-corruption instrument (Statement 2 correct). The UNODC is mandated to assist implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC (Statement 4 correct). Statement 1 is incorrect: the Protocol against Smuggling of Migrants belongs to UNTOC, not UNCAC. Statement 3 is incorrect: it is UNCAC (not UNTOC) that contains provisions on asset recovery and return of illicitly taken assets (Chapter V of UNCAC).

India signed this Action Plan with Russia during the 2018 India-Russia Annual Summit. It covers nuclear energy cooperation across multiple projects including the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (Units 3–6), which is being built with Russian technical assistance. Russia (through Rosatom) is a long-standing partner in India's civilian nuclear programme.

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) was adopted by the European Parliament and Council in April 2016 and came into force on 25 May 2018. It replaced the 1995 EU Data Protection Directive and is considered the world's strongest set of data protection rules, giving EU citizens rights over their personal data and imposing strict obligations on organisations handling that data.

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. PVTGs are found in 18 States and one Union Territory (Andaman and Nicobar Islands). Criteria for PVTG designation include pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant or declining population, extremely low literacy, and a subsistence-level economy. There are 75 officially notified PVTGs (not 95), making statement 3 incorrect. Both Irular (Tamil Nadu) and Konda Reddi (Andhra Pradesh/Telangana) are included in the PVTG list.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Indian Forest (Amendment) Act, 2017 amended the Forest Act, 1927 to remove bamboo grown in non-forest areas from the definition of "tree," but bamboo in forest areas still requires felling permission — so statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Forest Rights Act 2006, bamboo is explicitly included as a minor forest produce. The Act grants forest-dwelling communities ownership rights over minor forest produce, including the right to collect, use, and sell such produce.

Only statement 3 is correct. The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 extended paid maternity leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks for women expecting their first or second child — not three months pre and three months post-delivery as stated in statement 1 (which is incorrect). Statement 2 is incorrect: the Act mandates that employers with 50 or more employees provide crèche facilities, with the mother allowed a minimum of four (not six) crèche visits daily. Statement 3 is correct: women with two or more surviving children are entitled to only 12 weeks of maternity leave.

Official poverty lines in India are fixed on the basis of consumption expenditure required to meet a basic caloric norm. Since price levels differ significantly across states — for example, consumer goods and food prices are higher in northeastern states and urban areas of large states compared to rural areas of smaller states — the monetary value of the poverty line varies accordingly. The poverty line is essentially a price-adjusted welfare threshold, not directly linked to state GDP or PDS quality.

Social capital refers to the intangible networks, norms of reciprocity, and mutual trust that facilitate collective action in society. It is not physical capital (buildings, machines — that is physical/produced capital), not human capital (literacy, working-age population — those are human capital indicators), but rather the quality of social relationships and institutions. Robert Putnam's seminal work defines social capital as the connections among individuals — social networks and the norms of reciprocity and trustworthiness that arise from them.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act was originally enacted in 1967. The UAPA (Amendment) Act, 2019 empowered the Central Government to designate individuals as terrorists (previously only organisations could be so designated). Statement 3 is incorrect: the NIA Amendment Act, 2019 empowered the NIA to investigate cases scheduled under UAPA without requiring state consent, overcoming the earlier constraint of needing state government approval before taking over state-level cases.

The Financial Intelligence Unit — India (FIU-IND) was set up in 2004 and functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. It is the central national agency responsible for receiving, processing, analysing, and disseminating information related to suspect financial transactions to intelligence and law enforcement agencies. FIU-IND is a member of the Egmont Group, the international body of Financial Intelligence Units, and reports to the Economic Intelligence Council (EIC) headed by the Finance Minister.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) was established in 1986 under the NDPS Act, 1985 and is the apex body for drug law enforcement in India. Statement 2 is incorrect — the description given for the Golden Crescent is actually that of the Golden Triangle. The Golden Crescent refers to the drug-producing zone spanning parts of Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan. The Golden Triangle is the area of confluence of Thailand, Laos, and Myanmar. Statement 3 is correct: India's geographic location between these two major opium-producing zones makes it both a transit country for drug trafficking and vulnerable to domestic drug abuse.

All three statements are correct and verified. Zika virus is a flavivirus transmitted primarily by Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes — the same vectors that transmit dengue and chikungunya; the virus was first identified in Uganda in 1947 and became a global health emergency during the 2015-16 Brazil outbreak. Sexual transmission of Zika virus is documented through anal, oral, and vaginal sex from both infected men and women to their partners, making it notable among mosquito-borne arboviruses for this transmission route. Zika infection during pregnancy can cross the placenta and cause congenital Zika syndrome — most notably microcephaly (abnormally small head due to impaired brain development) and other severe brain malformations; approximately 20-30% of mothers infected during pregnancy transmit the virus to the foetus. There is currently no approved vaccine or specific antiviral treatment for Zika; prevention relies on mosquito control and avoiding transmission in endemic areas. UPSC asks about Zika to test knowledge of emerging infectious diseases and their multi-route transmission patterns.

Options A, B, and C all accurately describe established scientific achievements in molecular biology and genetic engineering. Option D is the incorrect statement: multicellular organisms CAN indeed be cloned in laboratory conditions — Dolly the sheep (born 5 July 1996 at the Roslin Institute, Scotland) was the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell using the Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) technique, providing definitive proof that differentiated adult cells retain a complete genome capable of directing development. Since Dolly, successful cloning has been extended to many other multicellular organisms including cats, dogs, pigs, horses, cattle, wolves, and even endangered species. Reproductive cloning and therapeutic cloning (for stem cell production) are now well-established laboratory techniques. Option A refers to synthetic chromosome construction; option B to synthetic DNA/gene synthesis (including the first synthetic bacterial cell by the Venter Institute in 2010); option C to horizontal gene transfer and recombinant DNA technology. UPSC tests this to assess awareness of modern biotechnology breakthroughs.

Cas9 (CRISPR-associated protein 9) is a RNA-guided endonuclease — an enzyme that acts as "molecular scissors" — used in the CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing system to cut double-stranded DNA at a precise, programmable location in the genome. In nature, Cas9 is part of the CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) immune system of bacteria, which they use to recognise and destroy viral DNA; scientists repurposed this system by designing guide RNA (gRNA) sequences complementary to any target DNA sequence, allowing Cas9 to cut at that exact location. Jennifer Doudna and Emmanuelle Charpentier demonstrated in 2012 that CRISPR-Cas9 could be programmed for precise genome editing and were awarded the 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for this discovery. The technology has applications in treating genetic diseases (sickle cell disease, certain cancers), developing disease-resistant crops, and basic biological research. Options B, C, and D are fabricated distractors — Cas9 is not produced by cancer cells, is not a synthetic peptide for drug delivery, and is not a gene per se.

Carbon is the element found in all organic compounds, by definition — organic chemistry is the chemistry of carbon-containing compounds (with a few conventional exceptions such as CO₂, CO, carbonates, bicarbonates, and cyanides, which are treated as inorganic despite containing carbon). Carbon's unique ability to form four covalent bonds, create long chains (catenation), form rings, double bonds, and triple bonds makes it the backbone of the millions of organic molecules essential to life. While the vast majority of organic compounds also contain hydrogen (hydrocarbons are the simplest class), many organic compounds lack hydrogen (e.g., CCl₄) or lack oxygen (hydrocarbons, many proteins), and many lack nitrogen (carbohydrates, fats) — but carbon is the universal constituent. Nitrogen is found in proteins (amino acids), nucleic acids (DNA/RNA), and alkaloids but not in all organic compounds such as carbohydrates and fats. Oxygen is present in many but not all organic compounds (e.g., methane CH₄ contains no oxygen). UPSC tests this foundational concept of organic chemistry to assess basic chemical literacy.

Statement 1 is correct: Chandrayaan-2 was launched on 22 July 2019 by GSLV Mk-III (officially now renamed LVM3 — Launch Vehicle Mark 3), India's most powerful operational rocket capable of launching 4 tonnes to geostationary transfer orbit; this was the first operational mission of GSLV Mk-III. Statement 2 is correct: the Chandrayaan-2 orbiter was designed for a nominal 1-year mission, but owing to the precision of the launch trajectory (which conserved fuel), ISRO extended its mission life significantly — the orbiter continues to function effectively years after its planned operational period. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Vikram lander attempted a soft landing near the lunar south pole on 6 September 2019, but communications were lost at an altitude of about 2.1 km during the powered descent due to a software anomaly; the lander crashed onto the lunar surface and did not achieve a soft landing. India subsequently succeeded with Chandrayaan-3's Vikram lander on 23 August 2023. The Chandrayaan-2 failure provided crucial engineering lessons that made Chandrayaan-3 successful. Hence 1 and 2 only (option A).

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. IGMDP was sanctioned in 1983 and led by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (who was then Director of DRDL — Defence Research and Development Laboratory) with the ambitious goal of developing five different guided missile systems simultaneously in India, reducing dependence on imported weapons; the programme was formally closed in 2008 after achieving its objectives. The five missiles developed under IGMDP were: Prithvi (short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile), Agni (intermediate-range ballistic missile), Trishul (short-range surface-to-air missile), Akash (medium-range surface-to-air missile for point and area defence), and Nag (third-generation anti-tank guided missile) — a useful mnemonic is PATNA (Prithvi-Agni-Trishul-Nag-Akash). Statement 3 is incorrect: BrahMos is completely separate from IGMDP; it is a joint venture between India's DRDO and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya, formed as BrahMos Aerospace in 1998, and was developed independently as an Indo-Russian collaborative defence project — it was not part of India's self-contained indigenous IGMDP. Hence 1 and 2 only (option A).

All three statements are correct. India conducted Mission Shakti, its first and successful Anti-Satellite (ASAT) weapons test, on 27 March 2019 — statement 1 is correct; the test was conducted by DRDO using a modified PDV Mk-II missile launched from the Integrated Test Range at Abdul Kalam Island (Odisha), which destroyed the target satellite Microsat-R at approximately 283 km altitude after 168 seconds of flight. India thereby became the fourth country in the world to demonstrate ASAT capability, after the USA (1985), Russia (Soviet Union, 1968), and China (2007) — statement 2 is correct; the announcement was made by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The test was deliberately conducted at a low LEO altitude of approximately 283 km (significantly lower than China's 2007 ASAT test at ~865 km which created thousands of debris pieces still in orbit) to ensure that debris from the destroyed satellite would naturally decay and re-enter Earth's atmosphere within weeks due to atmospheric drag — statement 3 is correct. India's choice of a low-altitude test reflected its commitment to responsible use of outer space. This capability is significant for protecting India's space assets from adversaries. All three statements are verified as accurate.

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Sendai Framework was adopted at the Third UN World Conference on DRR in Sendai, Japan on 18 March 2015. It is the successor to the Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) 2005–2015. The Sendai Framework has four priorities (understanding disaster risk; strengthening disaster risk governance; investing in DRR; enhancing disaster preparedness) and seven global targets (reduce mortality, number of affected people, direct economic loss, damage to critical infrastructure, number of countries with DRR strategies, international cooperation, and availability of multi-hazard early warning systems). Statement 4 is incorrect: unlike legally binding treaties, the Sendai Framework is a voluntary, non-binding agreement — countries commit to its goals on a best-efforts basis.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) is constituted under Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005. The NDRF is administered by the Central Government and is used to supplement the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) when a disaster is of such severity that it exceeds the State's capacity to manage with SDRF resources — grants from NDRF are typically released after a Central team visits and assesses the damage. Statement 3 is incorrect: the NDRF is not under the control of NDMA. It is managed by the Ministry of Finance (not NDMA), based on recommendations from the National Executive Committee (NEC) headed by the Union Home Secretary.