UPSC Prelims 2024 Question Paper with Answers

The Government of India has constituted FOUR Delimitation Commissions till December 2023 — in 1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002 — under the Delimitation Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972, and 2002 respectively. WHAT IS DELIMITATION: Delimitation is the act of fixing or readjusting the territorial boundaries of electoral constituencies (Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly seats) based on the latest Census, to ensure each constituency has roughly equal population. Article 82 and 170 of the Constitution provide for this exercise. THE FOUR COMMISSIONS: (1) FIRST COMMISSION 1952 — based on the 1951 Census, fixed Lok Sabha at 489 seats. (2) SECOND COMMISSION 1963 — based on the 1961 Census, increased Lok Sabha seats to 522. (3) THIRD COMMISSION 1973 — based on the 1971 Census, increased Lok Sabha to 543 seats (the current number). (4) FOURTH COMMISSION 2002 — based on the 2001 Census, did NOT change the total number of seats (a freeze imposed by the 42nd Amendment 1976 and extended by the 84th Amendment 2001 until the first Census after 2026). It only readjusted constituency boundaries within states. THE FREEZE: After the 1971 Census, the 42nd Amendment 1976 froze the allocation of Lok Sabha seats to states until 2001 to discourage states from population growth (which would otherwise increase their seat share). The 84th Amendment 2001 extended the freeze to 2026, meaning the next major delimitation will likely happen after the first Census after 2026 (i.e., the 2031 Census). UPSC 2024 official answer: D.

The 71st CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1992 added THREE LANGUAGES — KONKANI, MANIPURI, and NEPALI — to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. THE EIGHTH SCHEDULE lists the languages officially recognised by the Indian Constitution. Originally (1950), it contained 14 languages. Through subsequent amendments, the list has grown to 22 languages. AMENDMENTS THAT ADDED LANGUAGES: (a) ORIGINAL 14 (1950): Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu. (b) 21st AMENDMENT 1967: SINDHI added (15th language). (c) 71st AMENDMENT 1992: KONKANI, MANIPURI (Meiteilon), NEPALI added (16th, 17th, 18th). (d) 92nd AMENDMENT 2003: BODO, DOGRI, MAITHILI, SANTHALI added (19th-22nd) — bringing the total to 22 languages. SIGNIFICANCE: Inclusion in the Eighth Schedule entitles a language to representation on the Official Languages Commission, candidates can take public service examinations in that language, and the language can be used by public bodies. There are pending demands for ~38 more languages (including Tulu, Garhwali, Bhojpuri, Rajasthani, Khasi, etc.) to be added. The Sitakant Mahapatra Committee was formed to evaluate these demands. The trap in this question is option C and option D, which include MAITHILI — Maithili was added in 2003 by the 92nd Amendment, NOT 1992 by the 71st. Hence Option A. UPSC 2024 official answer: A.

A MONEY BILL — defined under Article 110 of the Constitution — is a special category of Bill that deals exclusively with matters specified in Article 110(1): imposition/abolition/alteration of taxes, government borrowing, custody/payment from the Consolidated Fund or Contingency Fund of India, appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund, declaring an expenditure as charged on the Consolidated Fund, receipts on account of the Consolidated Fund, audit of accounts of Centre/States, and any matter incidental to these. KEY PROCEDURAL PROVISIONS: (1) ORIGINATION — Money Bills can ONLY be introduced in the LOK SABHA (not in the Rajya Sabha), and only on the recommendation of the President (Article 117). (2) RAJYA SABHA'S LIMITED ROLE — Article 109: After a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha CANNOT REJECT the Money Bill; it can only RECOMMEND amendments and must return the Bill within 14 days. The Lok Sabha may accept or reject the recommendations. If the Rajya Sabha does not return the bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. (3) SPEAKER'S CERTIFICATION — Whether a Bill is a Money Bill is decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and the Speaker's decision is final. This certification cannot be questioned in any court (though the Supreme Court has reviewed Money Bill certifications in some recent cases like the Aadhaar judgment 2018). (4) PRESIDENT'S ASSENT — Once passed, the Bill goes to the President for assent. The President cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration (unlike ordinary bills); he/she may only assent or withhold assent. RATIONALE: The Lok Sabha (directly elected by people) is supreme in financial matters because of the principle "no taxation without representation." The Rajya Sabha represents states and is not directly accountable to taxpayers. (a) Reject — Wrong; cannot reject. (c) Equal authority — Wrong; clearly unequal. (d) President introduces — Wrong; introduced by ministers in Lok Sabha after President's recommendation. UPSC 2024 official answer: B.

All three statements are correct. Part IXA (Article 243P–243ZG) deals with Municipalities; Part XVIII (Articles 352–360) covers Emergency provisions (National, State, and Financial Emergency); and Part XX (Article 368) contains the procedure for constitutional amendment.

Entry 81 of the Union List (List I, Seventh Schedule) explicitly covers "Inter-State quarantine" as a subject under central government jurisdiction. Inter-State trade and commerce (Entry 42, List III), Inter-State migration (Entry 81, List III) are Concurrent subjects, and Corporation tax (Entry 85, List I) is also a Union subject — but the statement in option (d) wrongly says it is a State subject.

Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted: in 1952 (Delimitation Commission Act 1952), 1962 (Delimitation Commission Act 1962), 1972 (Delimitation Commission Act 1972), and 2002 (Delimitation Commission Act 2002). Orders of Delimitation Commissions cannot be challenged in any court.

All three statements are correct. Article 109 lays down the special procedure for Money Bills; a Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha (not Rajya Sabha); and Rajya Sabha can only recommend amendments which Lok Sabha may accept or reject — it cannot reject a Money Bill outright. The Bill is deemed passed even if Rajya Sabha does not act within 14 days.

Statement 1 is correct — a bill pending in Lok Sabha at the time of its dissolution lapses. Statement 2 is also correct — a bill passed by Lok Sabha but awaiting Rajya Sabha action lapses on dissolution. Statement 3 is incorrect — a bill pending only in Rajya Sabha (never passed by Lok Sabha) does not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha, as Rajya Sabha is a permanent house.

Statement 1 is incorrect — the reservation will not take effect from the 18th Lok Sabha but only after the first census following the Act's commencement and a subsequent delimitation exercise. Statement 2 is correct — the reservation is in force for 15 years. Statement 3 is correct — one-third of seats reserved for SCs and STs shall be sub-reserved for women of those groups.

Statement 1 is correct — prorogation is done by the President on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. Statement 2 is correct — the President can prorogue even during a session (though it typically follows adjournment sine die). Statement 3 is incorrect — dissolution of Lok Sabha is on the advice of the Prime Minister (not the Chief Minister of a State), except in exceptional constitutional circumstances.

COLLATERAL BORROWING AND LENDING OBLIGATIONS (CBLO) was a MONEY MARKET instrument developed and introduced in India in January 2003 by the CLEARING CORPORATION OF INDIA LIMITED (CCIL) as an alternative to the call money market. It was a fully collateralised, transparent, and electronically traded instrument for short-term borrowing and lending of funds against eligible securities. KEY FEATURES: (a) FULLY COLLATERALISED — Unlike the call money market (which was uncollateralised and risky), CBLO required borrowers to pledge eligible securities (G-Secs) as collateral. (b) TENORS — From overnight to a maximum of 1 year, though most trading happened in overnight to 7-day tenors. (c) MEMBERS — Banks, primary dealers, mutual funds, insurance companies, NBFCs, and other entities allowed to participate. (d) DISCOUNTED INSTRUMENT — CBLO was issued at a discount to face value (similar to T-bills), with no coupon. WHY MONEY MARKET: The MONEY MARKET deals with short-term funds (less than 1 year) and includes instruments like Treasury bills, Commercial Paper, Certificates of Deposit, Repo, Call Money, Notice Money, Term Money, and CBLO. The bond market deals with longer-term debt; the forex market deals with foreign exchange; the stock market deals with equity. NOTE: CBLO was DISCONTINUED on 5 November 2018 and replaced with TRIPARTY REPO (TREPS), which has very similar features. The transition was made to align Indian money market practices with international standards. The Triparty Repo Dealing System (TREPS) is now the dominant collateralised borrowing-lending instrument in Indian money market. UPSC 2024 official answer: C.

The TOTAL FERTILITY RATE (TFR) is defined as the AVERAGE NUMBER OF LIVE BIRTHS A WOMAN WOULD HAVE BY THE END OF HER CHILD-BEARING AGE (typically 15-49 years), assuming she experiences the current age-specific fertility rates throughout her reproductive life. KEY POINTS: (a) PER WOMAN, NOT PER COUPLE — TFR is a per-woman statistic, not per couple. (b) THEORETICAL CONSTRUCT — It is computed by summing the age-specific fertility rates of women across all reproductive age groups in a given year. It represents what would happen if a woman lived through her entire reproductive life experiencing the current fertility rates at each age. (c) UNIT — Children per woman. REPLACEMENT-LEVEL FERTILITY: A TFR of approximately 2.1 is considered "replacement level" — the fertility rate needed to maintain a stable population (ignoring migration). 2.1 (not 2.0) accounts for child mortality and the slight imbalance in sex ratio at birth. INDIA'S TFR: India's TFR has fallen dramatically from 5.9 in 1950 to 2.0 in 2021 (per NFHS-5) — meaning India is now BELOW replacement-level fertility. Some southern states (Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala) and others (Punjab, Himachal, Maharashtra) have TFR well below 2 (1.5-1.8), while a few states like Bihar (3.0), Meghalaya (2.9), Uttar Pradesh (2.4), and Jharkhand (2.3) remain above replacement. GLOBAL TFR: ~2.3 (2024); developed countries typically 1.3-1.9; sub-Saharan Africa 4.3. (a) Birth rate per 1000 — That's the CRUDE BIRTH RATE, not TFR. (b) Per couple in lifetime — Misleading; TFR is per woman, and is a synthetic cohort measure not actual lifetime experience. (c) Birth rate minus death rate — That's the RATE OF NATURAL INCREASE. UPSC 2024 official answer: D.

All three statements are correct. (1) NBFCs CAN ACCESS LAF — CORRECT. The Reserve Bank has gradually extended LIQUIDITY ADJUSTMENT FACILITY (LAF) access. While LAF was originally restricted to scheduled commercial banks, the RBI has expanded it to selected NBFCs. Most importantly, in 2018, RBI permitted NBFCs (specifically Standalone Primary Dealers) to access LAF. Additionally, the RBI introduced the Targeted Long-Term Repo Operations (TLTRO) and Special Liquidity Facility (SLF) for NBFCs during the COVID-19 pandemic. As of 2024, NBFCs DO have certain LAF-window access through specific liquidity facilities. (2) FIIs CAN HOLD G-SECS — CORRECT. Foreign Institutional Investors / Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) are permitted to invest in government securities (Central and State G-Secs) under the prescribed limits set by RBI and SEBI. As of 2024, the General investment route, Voluntary Retention Route, and Fully Accessible Route (FAR) all enable FPI participation in G-Secs. The FAR was introduced in March 2020 to liberalise FPI access to specified G-Sec securities, leading to India's inclusion in the JP Morgan Government Bond Index-Emerging Markets (GBI-EM) in June 2024. (3) STOCK EXCHANGES SEPARATE DEBT TRADING — CORRECT. The major stock exchanges (BSE and NSE) operate SEPARATE WHOLESALE DEBT MARKET (WDM) and Retail Debt Market segments for trading in government securities, corporate bonds, treasury bills, and other debt instruments. NSE's WDM segment was launched in 1994 and is one of the oldest debt-trading platforms in India. SEBI also introduced an EBP (Electronic Bidding Platform) for primary issuance of corporate bonds. Hence all three — Option C. UPSC 2024 official answer: C.

All three categories of investors can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities in India. (1) INSURANCE COMPANIES — CORRECT. Insurance companies (life, general, health, and reinsurance) are MAJOR INVESTORS in both corporate bonds and government securities. Under IRDAI investment regulations, life insurers must invest at least 50% of their controlled funds in government and approved securities. Insurance companies are among the largest single holders of G-Secs in India after the RBI. Major players include LIC (largest), HDFC Life, SBI Life, ICICI Prudential. (2) PENSION FUNDS — CORRECT. Pension funds, including the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO), the National Pension System (NPS) funds, the Provident Fund schemes, and approved superannuation funds, are also significant institutional investors in fixed income securities. PFRDA regulations and EPFO investment patterns require substantial allocation to government securities. NPS Tier-1 schemes' G category fund invests 100% in government securities. (3) RETAIL INVESTORS — CORRECT. Retail investors can invest in both. For G-SECS: The RBI launched the RBI RETAIL DIRECT scheme in November 2021, allowing individual investors to directly open Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) accounts with the RBI and invest in primary auctions and secondary market trading of T-bills, dated G-Secs, State Development Loans, and Sovereign Gold Bonds. For CORPORATE BONDS: Retail investors can buy corporate bonds through stock exchanges (BSE/NSE debt platforms), through bond aggregator platforms (Wint Wealth, Goldenpi, IndiaBonds), or through public NCD issues. SEBI has reduced the minimum face value of corporate bonds from ₹10 lakh to ₹1 lakh in 2022 to encourage retail participation. Hence all three — Option D. UPSC 2024 official answer: D.

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. The digital rupee (e₹) is sovereign legal tender issued by RBI under its monetary policy mandate (Statement 1). Like physical currency, it appears as RBI's liability (Statement 2) and is freely convertible at par with physical cash and commercial bank money (Statement 4). Statement 3 is incorrect — the digital rupee has no built-in inflation protection; it holds the same value as physical currency which is subject to inflation.

Statement I is correct — in syndicated lending, a group of lenders pools together to fund a single borrower, distributing default risk. Statement II is incorrect — syndicated loans can take the form of a term loan (fixed lump sum) OR a revolving credit facility (credit line), so the claim that it "cannot be a credit line" is false.

Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is the average number of children that would be born to a woman over her lifetime if she experienced the current age-specific fertility rates. It is a period measure expressing the fertility of a hypothetical cohort of women through their entire reproductive years. A TFR of 2.1 represents the replacement level fertility in developed countries.

All three statements are correct. NBFCs, though typically excluded from LAF, can access it under specific RBI frameworks (certain categories like NBFC-MFIs). Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs, formerly FIIs) are permitted to invest in G-Secs up to specified limits. Stock Exchanges like BSE and NSE operate dedicated debt trading platforms for listed bonds and debentures.

Both statements are correct. Under Article 112, the President causes the Annual Financial Statement (the Union Budget) to be laid before both Houses of Parliament; the Finance Minister does this on behalf of the President. Under Article 113(3), no demand for grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President — this ensures executive control over spending proposals.

Statement 1 is correct — India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC), an intergovernmental body that promotes international cooperation in grain trade. Statement 2 is incorrect — IGC membership is not a prerequisite for exporting or importing rice or wheat; many major trading countries are not members, and non-members freely trade in grains.

Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect. ISOTHERMS are lines on a map joining places of equal temperature, used to show temperature distribution. (1) NORTH OVER OCEANS, SOUTH OVER CONTINENTS IN JANUARY (Northern Hemisphere winter) — CORRECT. In the Northern Hemisphere winter (January), oceans retain summer heat longer due to their high specific heat capacity (water heats and cools slower than land), while continents lose heat rapidly to the cold winter air. Therefore, at the same latitude, OCEANS are WARMER than LAND. The isotherms (constant-temperature lines) reflect this by bending POLEWARD (NORTH in NH winter) over oceans (where warm temperatures extend further north) and EQUATORWARD (SOUTH) over continents (where cold temperatures extend further south). The opposite pattern occurs in July (NH summer): isotherms deviate south over oceans and north over continents. (2) GULF STREAM/NORTH ATLANTIC DRIFT MAKES NORTH ATLANTIC COLDER — INCORRECT. This statement is the OPPOSITE of reality. The GULF STREAM and its extension the NORTH ATLANTIC DRIFT are WARM ocean currents that originate in the Gulf of Mexico and flow northeast across the Atlantic to northwestern Europe. They make the North Atlantic and Western European coastline ANOMALOUSLY WARM compared to other locations at the same latitude — this is why ports in Norway (e.g., Hammerfest) remain ice-free in winter, while ports in Canada (e.g., Halifax) freeze. The isotherms in the North Atlantic bend POLEWARD (north) due to this warming effect, but the cause is the WARM Gulf Stream, NOT cold currents. The statement's claim that these are "cold ocean currents" making the ocean "colder" is factually wrong. UPSC 2024 official answer: A.

The two largest COCOA producers in the world are CÔTE D'IVOIRE (Ivory Coast) and GHANA, both in West Africa. Together, these two countries produce approximately 60-65% of the world's cocoa beans. CÔTE D'IVOIRE — the largest single producer, accounting for ~40% of global cocoa output (~2.0 million tonnes annually). The cocoa industry employs about a quarter of the population and accounts for 40% of the country's export earnings. GHANA — the second-largest producer, contributing ~20% of global output (~800,000 tonnes annually). Cocoa is also Ghana's most important cash crop, exported through the state-controlled Cocobod (Cocoa Marketing Board). WHY WEST AFRICA? Cocoa requires tropical conditions: temperatures of 20-30°C, rainfall of 1500-2000 mm well-distributed throughout the year, and shade from larger trees (often grown in agroforestry systems with bananas, plantains, and rubber). The hot, humid forest belt of West Africa from Liberia to Cameroon provides ideal conditions. Cocoa originated in Mesoamerica (Central/South America) and was introduced to West Africa by European colonisers in the 19th century. OTHER MAJOR COCOA PRODUCERS (smaller): Indonesia (3rd, ~600,000 t), Nigeria (4th), Cameroon (5th), Brazil, Ecuador, Peru. CHALLENGES: child labour, deforestation, low farmer incomes, climate change threats, and the fragmented smallholder structure. The EU Deforestation Regulation (EUDR) of 2024 specifically targets cocoa supply chains. Belgium, Netherlands, Germany, and Switzerland are major importers and chocolate manufacturers. (a) Algeria/Morocco — North Africa, too dry for cocoa. (b) Botswana/Namibia — Southern African desert/savanna, no cocoa. (d) Madagascar/Mozambique — small producers, not the top two. UPSC 2024 official answer: C.

The correct WEST-TO-EAST sequence of major Himalayan tributaries joining the Ganga downstream of PRAYAGRAJ (Allahabad, where the Yamuna meets the Ganga) is: GOMATI → GHAGHARA → GANDAK → KOSI. (1) GOMATI — Originates from Gomat Taal (Fulhaar Jheel) in Pilibhit district, Uttar Pradesh (a Himalayan foothill source). It flows through Lucknow and joins the Ganga at Saidpur (Kaithi village) in Ghazipur district, UP — about 180 km downstream of Prayagraj. The westernmost of the four. (2) GHAGHARA (also called Karnali in Nepal) — Rises in the Mapchachungo glacier in Tibet, flows through Nepal as the Karnali, enters India in Bahraich district, and joins the Ganga at Doriganj near Chhapra in Saran district, Bihar (downstream of Gomati confluence). It is one of the LARGEST tributaries of the Ganga by water volume (more than the main Ganga itself at the confluence). (3) GANDAK (Narayani in Nepal) — Originates in Tibet, flows through Nepal as the Narayani, enters India near Triveni in Champaran district, and joins the Ganga at Hajipur (opposite Patna) in Bihar — further east of the Ghaghara confluence. Famous for its rich silt deposits enriching the Bihar plain. (4) KOSI (Kaushiki in Nepal) — The "Sorrow of Bihar" due to frequent course-changing floods. Originates in Tibet (Arun), flows through Nepal, enters India in Saharsa district, and joins the Ganga at Kursela in Katihar district, Bihar — the easternmost of the four. KEY CITIES along Ganga (W→E after Prayagraj): Mirzapur — Varanasi — Ghazipur (Gomati confluence) — Buxar — Patna (Gandak confluence opposite) — Bhagalpur — Sahibganj. Hence the correct order is GOMATI → GHAGHARA → GANDAK → KOSI — Option B. UPSC 2024 official answer: B.

Option A is CORRECT. The CANADA-UNITED STATES border is the LONGEST INTERNATIONAL BORDER between any two countries in the world, stretching approximately 8,891 KILOMETRES (5,525 miles) — including the border between Alaska and Canada (about 2,475 km) and the conterminous US-Canada border (about 6,416 km). It is also one of the world's most peaceful borders — entirely demilitarised since the Rush-Bagot Treaty of 1817 — and one of the busiest, with over 400,000 people crossing daily in normal times. The border was largely defined by the Treaty of Paris (1783), the Treaty of 1818 (49th parallel from Lake of the Woods to Rocky Mountains), and the Oregon Treaty (1846, extending 49th parallel to Pacific). Comparison with the other options: (b) CHILE-ARGENTINA — approximately 5,308 km, the world's 3rd longest border, running along the Andes mountains. (c) CHINA-INDIA — the disputed boundary stretches approximately 3,488 km, including the Line of Actual Control (LAC) divided into Western (J&K/Ladakh), Middle (HP/Uttarakhand), and Eastern (Sikkim/Arunachal Pradesh) sectors. (d) KAZAKHSTAN-RUSSIAN FEDERATION — about 6,846 km, the SECOND LONGEST international border in the world (often confused with #1). Other long borders include Argentina-Chile (#3), China-Mongolia (~4,677 km), and Russia-China (~4,209 km). UPSC 2024 official answer: A.

Option B (Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi) is the CORRECT sequence from WEST to EAST as the Ganga flows downstream from Prayagraj (Allahabad) toward the Bay of Bengal. (1) GOMATI — Joins the Ganga near Saidpur in Ghazipur district, Uttar Pradesh. The Gomati originates from Gomat Taal (Fulhaar Jheel) near Pilibhit in U.P. — a relatively short Himalayan-foothill river flowing past Lucknow. It is the WESTERNMOST tributary in this list. (2) GHAGHARA (also called KARNALI in Nepal, SARJU/SARYU in Hindu tradition) — Joins the Ganga at Doriganj near Chhapra in Bihar. The Ghaghara originates from the Mapchachungo Glacier near Lake Manasarovar in Tibet, flows through Nepal as the Karnali, and enters India through U.P./Bihar. It is the LARGEST tributary of the Ganga by volume of water (even larger than the Ganga itself at the confluence). (3) GANDAK (also called NARAYANI in Nepal, SADANIRA in ancient texts, KRISHNA-GANDAKI in mid-Nepal) — Joins the Ganga near Hajipur opposite Patna, Bihar. The Gandak rises in the Nepalese Himalayas from the Tibet-Nepal border at over 7,600 m elevation. (4) KOSI (also called KAUSHIKI, "Sorrow of Bihar") — Joins the Ganga near Kursela in Katihar district, Bihar. The Kosi originates from the Tibet-Nepal border region, with seven major upper tributaries (Sapt Kosi). It is famous for its devastating floods due to its shifting course over the centuries. So the correct west-to-east order downstream of Prayagraj is: GOMATI → GHAGHARA → GANDAK → KOSI. UPSC 2024 official answer: B.

Option C (Both 1 and 2) is CORRECT. The RED SEA is a SEMI-ENCLOSED narrow body of water lying between Africa and the Arabian Peninsula, connecting to the Indian Ocean via the Bab-el-Mandeb strait in the south and to the Mediterranean via the Suez Canal in the north (man-made). It is approximately 2,250 km long, 355 km at its widest, and reaches depths of 2,500 m. It is famous for being one of the WARMEST and SALTIEST water bodies in the world. Statement 1 is CORRECT. The Red Sea region experiences EXTREMELY ARID conditions — bordered by the Sahara, Nubian, and Arabian deserts. Annual rainfall averages just 50-100 mm in coastal areas (some parts get less than 50 mm), and the entire surrounding region receives among the lowest precipitation in the world. Cloud cover is minimal, and most of the year is hot and dry. Statement 2 is CORRECT. Unlike most large seas and gulfs, the Red Sea has NO PERMANENT RIVERS draining into it. The arid surrounding lands have only seasonal wadis (dry stream beds that flow briefly during rare rainfall events). This is unique among major seas — compare with the Mediterranean (Nile, Po, Rhône), Black Sea (Danube, Dnieper, Don), Persian Gulf (Tigris-Euphrates). CONSEQUENCES: Without river inflow and with very high evaporation (over 2 m per year), the Red Sea has EXTREMELY HIGH SALINITY — averaging 36-41 ppt (parts per thousand) versus the global ocean average of 35 ppt; in some northern areas it reaches 42 ppt. Water replacement comes from the Gulf of Aden via Bab-el-Mandeb. The Red Sea is also a young oceanic rift — the African and Arabian plates are pulling apart at ~1 cm/year — making it a tectonic spreading centre. UPSC 2024 official answer: C.

Option C (Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana) is CORRECT. Cocoa (Theobroma cacao), the source of CHOCOLATE, is one of the most important tropical commercial crops in the world. The crop requires hot, humid climate with consistent rainfall (1,250-3,000 mm annually) and temperatures of 21-32°C — conditions found in West Africa, Latin America, and parts of South-East Asia. WORLD COCOA PRODUCTION: West Africa dominates global cocoa production, accounting for approximately 70% of world output. The TWO LARGEST PRODUCERS are: (1) CÔTE D'IVOIRE (IVORY COAST) — The world's LARGEST cocoa producer, producing over 2.0-2.2 million tonnes per year, accounting for ~40-45% of global production. Cocoa is the backbone of the Ivorian economy, employing millions of smallholder farmers. The country relies heavily on cocoa export earnings. (2) GHANA — The world's SECOND-LARGEST cocoa producer, producing approximately 800,000-1,000,000 tonnes per year (~15-20% of global production). Ghana's cocoa is widely regarded as among the highest quality in the world. Together, Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana account for over 60% of global cocoa supply — making them critical to the international chocolate industry. WHY WEST AFRICA: Tropical rainforest climate, traditional smallholder farming systems, colonial-era plantation legacy, and well-established processing/export infrastructure. CHALLENGES: Recent years have seen cocoa prices SOAR to record highs (2024) due to bad weather (drought and excessive rainfall), tree diseases (swollen shoot virus, black pod disease), and aging plantations. (a) Algeria/Morocco — North African deserts, no cocoa. (b) Botswana/Namibia — too dry. (d) Madagascar/Mozambique — produces some cocoa but minor share. UPSC 2024 official answer: C.

Both statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. The troposphere extends approximately 8 km at the poles and about 16-18 km at the equator. At the equator, intense solar heating drives powerful convectional currents that push the tropopause to greater heights, making the troposphere thicker there. This convectional activity is the causal mechanism behind the latitudinal variation in troposphere thickness.

Statement I is incorrect — the atmosphere IS mainly heated by terrestrial (long-wave) radiation re-emitted from Earth's surface (insolation heats the surface; the surface heats the air above), which is broadly true. However, the reason (Statement II — greenhouse gases absorbing long-wave radiation) is correct. Per official UPSC 2024 answer key, the correct answer is (d) — Statement I as worded in the exam was considered incorrect because it overstated the mechanism, while Statement II correctly describes greenhouse gas absorption.

Both statements are correct. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to wind speed — faster-moving air parcels experience greater deflection. It is also a function of the sine of latitude: it is maximum at the poles (sine 90° = 1) and zero at the Equator (sine 0° = 0), where the rotational component acts purely horizontally and produces no deflection of moving air masses.

On June 21 (summer solstice), the Sun is directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N). All latitudes north of the Equator experience more than 12 hours of daylight; the Arctic Circle experiences 24 hours of daylight (midnight sun). The Equator has exactly 12 hours of daylight year-round, and the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5°S) experiences less than 12 hours on this date as it is the southern hemisphere's winter solstice.

The Canada–USA border (including the Alaska boundary) is the world's longest international border at approximately 8,891 km (land boundary only). It stretches from the Pacific Ocean in the west to the Atlantic Ocean in the east. The Russia–Kazakhstan border (~7,644 km) is the second longest, followed by Argentina–Chile (~5,308 km).

Moving downstream (eastward) from Prayagraj, the Ganga is joined by: Gomati (near Varanasi/Ghazipur), then Ghaghara (near Chhapra, Bihar), then Gandak (near Hajipur, Bihar), and finally Kosi (near Kursela, Bihar). The correct west-to-east sequence is Gomati → Ghaghara → Gandak → Kosi.

Cote d'Ivoire (Ivory Coast) and Ghana together account for about 60-65% of global cocoa production. Cote d'Ivoire is consistently the world's top cocoa producer, followed by Ghana. Both countries are in West Africa where the tropical climate (hot, humid, high rainfall) is ideal for cocoa cultivation.

Statement 1 is incorrect: under the Ryotwari Settlement (introduced by Thomas Munro in Madras), there was NO automatic exemption for poor harvests — peasants were still legally liable for revenue. Statement 2 is correct: Lord Cornwallis's Permanent Settlement (1793) introduced the "Sunset Law" — if zamindars failed to pay revenue by sunset on the fixed date, their estates would be sold. This rigid system led to widespread transfer of zamindari rights.

Madhyama-vyayoga is one of the thirteen plays attributed to the ancient Sanskrit playwright Bhasa (believed to have lived around 2nd–3rd century CE). His other notable works include Svapnavasavadatta, Pratima Nataka, Pancaratra, and Charudatta. Kavyalankara was composed by Bhamaha; the Natyashastra by Bharata Muni; and Mahabhashya by Patanjali (a treatise on Sanskrit grammar).

Durga Puja in Kolkata was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in December 2021, making it the most recently inscribed among these options. Kumbh Mela was inscribed in 2017, Chhau dance in 2010, and Garba (Navratri) of Gujarat was inscribed in December 2023 (after this exam was set). As of the 2024 UPSC exam context, Durga Puja was the latest inclusion.

"Nayaputta" (meaning "son of the Naya/Jnatrika clan") is an epithet of Vardhamana Mahavira, the 24th Jain Tirthankara — NOT of Gautama Buddha. "Shakyamuni" (Sage of the Shakyas) refers to the Buddha's clan origin and is one of his most common epithets. "Tathagata" (one who has thus come/gone, i.e., one who has attained enlightenment) is a title the Buddha used for himself in the Pali Canon. A common UPSC trap is confusing Nayaputta (Mahavira) with a Buddha epithet.

Sanghabhuti was a learned Indian Buddhist monk from Kashmir who travelled to China circa 381 CE and collaborated with Chinese scholars to translate Buddhist texts. His most significant contribution was a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya — the monastic code of the Sarvastivada school of Buddhism. The Sarvastivada school was particularly influential in northwest India and Central Asia. The Visuddhimagga was composed by Buddhaghosa (5th century CE); the Lalitavistara is a Mahayana text on the Buddha's life.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Upanishads are rich in parables and allegorical stories used to convey philosophical truths. Famous parables include the story of Nachiketa and Yama (Katha Upanishad), Satyakama Jabala (Chandogya Upanishad), and the honey doctrine (Brihadaranyaka Upanishad). Statement 2 is correct: The principal Upanishads (Brihadaranyaka, Chandogya, etc.) were composed between approximately 800–500 BCE, while the Puranas were composed mainly in the Gupta period (4th–6th century CE) and later, making the Upanishads significantly older.

The CUVETTE CENTRALE PEATLANDS in the CONGO BASIN of central Africa is the world's LARGEST tropical peatland complex — and was only formally identified by scientists in 2017. KEY FACTS: (a) AREA — Approximately 145,500 sq km (larger than England), spanning the Republic of the Congo and the Democratic Republic of the Congo. (b) CARBON STORE — Estimated to hold ~30 billion tonnes of carbon — equivalent to approximately THREE YEARS OF GLOBAL CO₂ EMISSIONS from fossil fuels at current rates. (c) WHAT IS PEAT? Peat is partially decomposed organic matter (mostly plant material) accumulated over thousands of years in waterlogged, anaerobic conditions where decomposition is slow. As long as peatlands remain WET, the carbon stays locked in. If they dry out (due to drainage, deforestation, climate change), the peat decomposes rapidly, releasing massive CO₂ into the atmosphere. (d) THREATS: Plans for industrial agriculture (palm oil), logging, oil exploration, and gradual drying due to climate change all threaten the Cuvette Centrale. The 2017 discovery and subsequent UN-led Brazzaville Declaration (2018) are international efforts to protect this critical carbon store. SCIENTIFIC SIGNIFICANCE: The discovery dramatically changed global peatland mapping — previously the world's largest tropical peatland was thought to be in Indonesian Borneo (Borneo and Sumatra peatlands together still hold huge carbon, and have been heavily damaged by deforestation and drainage for palm oil). Cuvette Centrale is also a critical biodiversity reserve (home to bonobos, lowland gorillas, forest elephants). (a) AMAZON BASIN — has rainforest but its peatlands are smaller and more scattered (estimated 35,000 sq km, half the size of Cuvette Centrale). (c) KIKORI BASIN (Papua New Guinea) — small peatland area. (d) RIO DE LA PLATA BASIN (South America) — wetlands but not significant peatlands. UPSC 2024 official answer: B.

All three statements are correct. PFAS are nicknamed "FOREVER CHEMICALS" because of their extreme environmental persistence. WHAT ARE PFAS? Perfluoroalkyl and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances are a class of ~12,000+ synthetic chemicals containing strong CARBON-FLUORINE BONDS (the strongest single bond in organic chemistry). The most studied are PFOA (perfluorooctanoic acid) and PFOS (perfluorooctane sulfonic acid). Used since the 1940s for their water-, oil-, heat-, and stain-resistant properties. (1) WIDESPREAD IN DRINKING WATER, FOOD, FOOD PACKAGING — CORRECT. PFAS are used in non-stick cookware (Teflon), waterproof fabrics (Gore-Tex), stain-resistant carpets, food wrappers, microwave popcorn bags, dental floss, cosmetics, fire-fighting foams, and many industrial applications. They leach into water supplies, soil, and food. Studies have detected PFAS in drinking water of millions of people worldwide. The US EPA in 2024 set the first enforceable maximum contaminant levels for PFAS in drinking water (4 parts per trillion for PFOA and PFOS). (2) NOT EASILY DEGRADED — CORRECT. The carbon-fluorine bond is one of the strongest in nature, making PFAS resistant to biological degradation, hydrolysis, photolysis, and most chemical breakdown processes. Some PFAS persist in the environment for thousands of years — hence "forever chemicals." Conventional water treatment cannot remove them. (3) BIOACCUMULATION — CORRECT. PFAS bioaccumulate in animal tissues (especially liver, blood, kidney) and BIOMAGNIFY up the food chain — similar to mercury and DDT. Studies have found PFAS in polar bears, whales, fish, birds, and human blood — even in remote populations like Inuit communities. HEALTH EFFECTS: Linked to cancer (kidney, testicular), liver damage, thyroid disease, immune dysfunction, developmental effects, and hormonal disruption. INDIA: The Stockholm Convention listed PFOS in 2009 and PFOA in 2019 for global elimination. India is a party. Hence all three — Option D. UPSC 2024 official answer: D.

Statement I is correct (under the original 1972 Act); Statement II is INCORRECT — Indian Flying Foxes are FRUIT BATS, not blood-feeding bats. (I) INDIAN FLYING FOX IN VERMIN CATEGORY — CORRECT. The INDIAN FLYING FOX (Pteropus medius/giganteus), India's largest bat species (wingspan up to 1.5 m), was placed in SCHEDULE V of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 — the "VERMIN" category — alongside the common crow, fruit bats, mice, and rats. Schedule V species could be hunted without a permit at any time, as they were considered nuisance animals causing damage to crops/property. NOTE: The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 RESTRUCTURED the Schedules — now there are only 4 Schedules, and Schedule V (vermin) has been abolished. As of UPSC 2024 timing, the question may still have referenced the historical placement. The 2022 amendment came into force in April 2023. Most flying fox species have since been moved to Schedule II (high protection), reflecting their ecological importance as pollinators and seed dispersers — they pollinate hundreds of plant species including economically important fruit trees. (II) FEEDS ON BLOOD — INCORRECT. The Indian Flying Fox is a FRUITIVORE — it feeds primarily on FRUITS (mangoes, figs, bananas, dates, etc.), nectar, pollen, and flowers. Despite their large size and menacing appearance, they are entirely vegetarian. Blood-feeding bats (haematophagous) are the THREE VAMPIRE BAT SPECIES (Desmodus rotundus, Diaemus youngi, Diphylla ecaudata), all found ONLY in CENTRAL and SOUTH AMERICA — not India. So statement II is factually wrong about the Indian Flying Fox's feeding habits. Hence Option C. UPSC 2024 official answer: C.

NONE of the pairs is correctly matched. All three are scrambled — the animals belong to different countries than those listed. (1) BRAZIL : INDRI — INCORRECT. The INDRI (Indri indri) is a large lemur species found ONLY in MADAGASCAR — a critically endangered primate famous for its haunting song-like calls. Lemurs (including Indri, Sifaka, Aye-aye, ring-tailed lemur) are ENDEMIC to Madagascar; they evolved in isolation after Madagascar separated from the African continent ~165 million years ago. They are not found in Brazil or anywhere in South America. (2) INDONESIA : ELK — INCORRECT. ELK (Cervus canadensis), also called WAPITI, is one of the largest deer species in the world, found in NORTH AMERICA (Canada, USA, Mexico) and parts of EAST ASIA (Russia, Mongolia, China, Korea). Elks live in forests and forest-edge habitats of the temperate zone. Indonesia, being tropical, has different deer species (sambar, muntjac, rusa) but not elk. The European elk (Alces alces) is actually the moose in North American terminology, also not in Indonesia. (3) MADAGASCAR : BONOBO — INCORRECT. The BONOBO (Pan paniscus) is one of humanity's closest living relatives, alongside chimpanzees. Bonobos are found ONLY in the DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC OF THE CONGO, in the lowland rainforests south of the Congo River. They are critically endangered due to habitat loss and bushmeat hunting. Madagascar has lemurs (as noted above), not bonobos — Madagascar has no native great apes. CORRECT PAIRINGS would be: BRAZIL = jaguar, capybara, harpy eagle, golden lion tamarin; INDONESIA = orangutan, Komodo dragon, Sumatran tiger, Javan rhino; MADAGASCAR = lemurs (including Indri), fossa, aye-aye, tomato frog. Hence None — Option D. UPSC 2024 official answer: D.

All three statements about PFAS (called "forever chemicals") are correct. They are ubiquitous environmental contaminants found in drinking water, food packaging, non-stick cookware and firefighting foam (Statement 1). Their strong C-F chemical bonds make them extremely resistant to environmental degradation (Statement 2). They bioaccumulate in animal and human tissues, causing health effects including liver damage, thyroid disruption and certain cancers (Statement 3).

Parasitoid species are found in three of the listed groups: Carabid beetles (Order Coleoptera), Flies (Order Diptera — e.g., tachinid flies), and Wasps (Order Hymenoptera — e.g., ichneumon wasps). Centipedes are predators, not parasitoids. Termites are social detritivores/herbivores with no known parasitoid species. Parasitoids lay eggs in or on a host, whose body the larva consumes, ultimately killing it.

Only Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is native to India, endemic to the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh. Cashew (Anacardium occidentale) is native to northeast Brazil and was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century. Papaya (Carica papaya) is native to Mexico and Central America, also introduced by the Portuguese. Red Sanders is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

All three belong to Fabaceae (pea family / legume family). Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea), Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum), and Soybean (Glycine max) are all legumes characterized by nitrogen-fixing root nodules, butterfly-shaped (papilionaceous) flowers, and pod-type fruits. All are important protein-rich crops and have symbiotic relationships with Rhizobium bacteria.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Lions breed year-round without a fixed breeding season, though cubs are sometimes born in synchrony within a pride. Cheetahs belong to genus Acinonyx and cannot roar — they purr, chirp and chatter instead, because they lack the two-piece hyoid bone that enables roaring in Panthera species. Statement 3 is incorrect — male leopards actively mark their territory using scent (urine spraying, gland secretions on trees), which is a key territorial behaviour.

All three statements are correct. PFAS ("forever chemicals") are synthetic organofluorine compounds used in non-stick cookware, food packaging, firefighting foam (AFFF), and waterproof textiles. They contaminate groundwater and drinking water globally (Statement 1). Their extremely strong carbon-fluorine bonds make them highly resistant to environmental degradation — half-lives in soil can exceed decades (Statement 2). Chronic exposure leads to bioaccumulation in animal tissues and human blood, associated with cancer, thyroid disruption, liver damage, and immune suppression (Statement 3). The US EPA set enforceable maximum contaminant levels for PFAS in drinking water in April 2024.

The Congo Basin (Central Africa) contains the world's largest tropical peatland — the Cuvette Centrale peat swamps, confirmed by science in 2017. Spanning approximately 145,500 km² across the Democratic Republic of Congo and the Republic of Congo, these peatlands store an estimated 29–30 billion tonnes of carbon, equivalent to roughly three years of global fossil fuel CO₂ emissions. The Amazon Basin has the world's largest tropical rainforest but does not hold the world's largest tropical peatland. Destruction through drainage or fire would release catastrophic amounts of stored carbon, making conservation of the Cuvette Centrale globally critical.

Parasitoid species are found in only three of the listed groups: Carabid beetles (Order Coleoptera), Flies (Order Diptera), and Wasps (Order Hymenoptera). A parasitoid is an organism that develops in or on a host and ultimately kills it — distinct from a parasite that generally does not kill its host. The vast majority of parasitoids belong to Hymenoptera (especially wasps) and Diptera (true flies). Ground beetles (Carabidae) include some parasitoid species. Centipedes are free-living predators, not parasitoids. Termites (Order Blattodea) are detritivores. Parasitoids are crucial agents in biological pest control.

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. The Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus giganteus) — the largest bat in India — was listed under Schedule V ("vermin") of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, in certain states, permitting culling where it damages fruit orchards; this listing has been contested by conservationists and was ultimately dropped from UPSC's final official answer key due to ambiguity. Statement-II is unambiguously incorrect: the Indian Flying Fox is a frugivore, feeding exclusively on fruits, nectar, flowers and leaves — it does NOT consume blood. Blood-feeding vampire bats (family Phyllostomidae) are found only in the Americas. Flying foxes are critical pollinators and seed dispersers for forest ecosystems.

All four materials can be used as feedstock for Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF), a drop-in biofuel that can reduce lifecycle CO₂ emissions by up to 80% compared to conventional jet fuel. Agricultural residues (crop straw, bagasse) are converted via gasification and Fischer-Tropsch synthesis or biochemical pathways. Animal fat (tallow) is processed through the Hydroprocessed Esters and Fatty Acids (HEFA) pathway — currently the most commercially mature SAF production route. Municipal solid waste (organic fraction) is converted via thermochemical or gasification routes. Used cooking oil (UCO) is the most widely used SAF feedstock today, also processed via HEFA. ICAO's CORSIA (Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation) incentivises SAF adoption to meet the international aviation net-zero target by 2050.

Statement 1 is incorrect — RTGs are not fission reactors; they generate electricity from the heat produced by the natural radioactive decay of Plutonium-238 using thermocouples, with no nuclear fission involved. Statement 2 is correct — RTGs have powered NASA missions including Voyager, Cassini, New Horizons, and the Curiosity and Perseverance Mars rovers. Statement 3 is correct — Pu-238 is produced by irradiating neptunium-237, a by-product of nuclear weapons programmes, and is the preferred RTG fuel due to its long half-life (~87.7 years).

The Metaverse is an interoperable network of persistent, shared 3D virtual environments in which users (typically represented by avatars) can interact, socialise, create, trade, and own digital assets. It draws together technologies such as virtual reality (VR), augmented reality (AR), and blockchain-based tokens (for property rights over virtual items). The term was coined by Neal Stephenson in his 1992 novel Snow Crash.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Machine learning — a core subset of AI — enables systems to improve automatically through experience by fitting models to data, without being explicitly programmed for each task (Arthur Samuel's definition, 1959). NLP (including large language models like GPT) enables AI to parse, interpret, and generate human language for translation, summarisation, and dialogue. Statement 3 is incorrect — present AI systems are examples of Narrow AI (Artificial Narrow Intelligence), excelling only in specific tasks; Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) — equivalent to or surpassing human cognition across all domains — does not currently exist.

Statement 1 is correct — Gaganyaan is India's first crewed orbital spacecraft programme, developed by ISRO, with the goal of sending Indian astronauts (Gagannauts) to a 400 km orbit for up to 3 days. Statement 2 is correct — the Gaganyaan crew module is designed to accommodate up to three astronauts. Statement 3 is incorrect — Gaganyaan will be launched aboard the GSLV Mk III (LVM3), India's heaviest operational launch vehicle, not the PSLV. LVM3 is the only Indian rocket with sufficient payload capacity for a human spaceflight mission.

Statement 1 is incorrect — RTGs are not fission reactors; they generate electricity from the natural radioactive decay of Plutonium-238 through thermocouples, with no nuclear fission involved. Statement 2 is correct — RTGs have powered deep-space NASA missions including Voyager 1 & 2, Cassini, New Horizons, and the Curiosity and Perseverance Mars rovers, where solar power is insufficient. Statement 3 is correct — Pu-238 is produced by irradiating neptunium-237, a by-product of nuclear weapons programs, and is the preferred RTG fuel due to its 87.7-year half-life and manageable heat output. (UPSC Prelims 2024; verified answer: 2 and 3 only.)

Both statements are correct. The Metaverse is conceived as a persistent, always-on, interconnected network of three-dimensional virtual worlds accessible via avatars (virtual representations) that allow users to interact with each other and with digital objects in real time — encompassing virtual reality, augmented reality, and 3D internet spaces. Major technology companies (Meta, Microsoft, NVIDIA) publicly describe the Metaverse as the next evolution of the internet, transitioning from 2D web pages and apps to immersive 3D shared spaces for work, social interaction, commerce, and entertainment. (UPSC Prelims 2024; verified answer: Both 1 and 2.)

Nitric oxide (NO) is produced endogenously in the human body by nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes from the amino acid L-arginine. It acts as a signalling molecule that causes smooth muscle relaxation in blood vessel walls (vasodilation), increasing blood flow. This mechanism is the basis for nitroglycerin's use in treating angina, and the 1998 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded to Furchgott, Ignarro, and Murad for discovering NO's role as a cardiovascular signalling molecule. Nitrous oxide (N₂O) is a sedative/anaesthetic gas; nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) is a toxic air pollutant; nitrogen pentoxide (N₂O₅) is a chemical reagent, not a biological molecule. (UPSC Prelims 2024; verified answer: Nitric oxide.)

None of the three aircraft listed are fifth-generation fighters. The Rafale (France) is a 4.5th-generation omnirole combat aircraft with advanced avionics and AESA radar but lacks full-aperture stealth. The MiG-29 (Russia) is a classic fourth-generation air-superiority fighter in service since the 1980s. The Tejas MK-1 (India/HAL) is also a fourth-generation light combat aircraft; the fifth-generation Tejas MK-2 and the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) are under development. True fifth-generation aircraft — defined by stealth shaping, sensor fusion, and supercruise — include the F-22 Raptor, F-35 Lightning II (USA), J-20 (China), and Su-57 (Russia). (UPSC Prelims 2024; verified answer: None.)

All four are Distributed Energy Resources. DERs are small-scale power generation, storage, or demand-management technologies located at or near the point of use, connected to the distribution grid. Battery storage systems (including EV batteries used in vehicle-to-grid configurations) store energy locally and can feed it back to the grid. Biomass generators convert organic material into electricity at decentralised facilities. Fuel cells generate electricity through electrochemical reactions (typically using hydrogen or natural gas) with no combustion. Rooftop solar PV systems are the most widespread DER, generating electricity at the consumer's premises. DERs are central to India's 500 GW non-fossil energy target under the National Mission on Transformative Mobility. (UPSC Prelims 2024; verified answer: All four.)

Both statements are correct and Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I. The Sumed (Suez-Mediterranean) Pipeline runs 320 km across Egypt from Ain Sukhna on the Red Sea to Sidi Kerir on the Mediterranean, providing an alternative to the Suez Canal for shipping Persian Gulf crude oil northward to Europe.

Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect: Exercise Mitra Shakti is conducted between India and Sri Lanka, not India and Bangladesh. The India-Bangladesh exercise is called Exercise SAMPRITI. The 9th edition of Mitra Shakti-2023 was held at Aundh Military Station, Pune (November 16–29, 2023). Its objectives included rehearsal of sub-conventional operations under UN Chapter VII with emphasis on counter-terrorism joint responses. Crucially, IAF personnel participated for the first time in this edition, alongside Indian Army and Sri Lanka Army troops.

Only two pairs are correctly matched (Argentina and Sudan). Argentina suffered its worst economic crisis in decades with inflation exceeding 287% annually in 2024. Sudan's civil war erupted in April 2023 between the Sudanese Armed Forces and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces. The Turkey pair is incorrect: Turkey has NOT rescinded NATO membership — it remains a founding member and, notably, approved Sweden's NATO accession in January 2024.

Both statements are correct and Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I. The Sahel — a belt spanning Mauritania, Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger, Chad, and Sudan — has seen a wave of military coups since 2020: Mali (August 2020, May 2021), Guinea (September 2021), Burkina Faso (January and September 2022), Niger (July 2023), and Gabon (August 2023). These coups have fuelled a surge in jihadist violence, conflict-related fatalities, and humanitarian crises, directly causing the worsening security situation.

Statement-I is correct: the European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act (NZIA) in April 2024 to scale up clean technology manufacturing capacity in the EU. Statement-II is incorrect on two counts: (a) the EU's carbon neutrality target is 2050, not 2040 (though 2040 is an interim benchmark target); and (b) the NZIA does not require the EU to develop all clean technology domestically — it allows for imports while requiring that 40% of clean technology deployment needs be met by EU manufacturing by 2030.

Statement-I is incorrect: Venezuela continues to face a severe humanitarian crisis with hyperinflation, poverty, food insecurity, and one of the world's largest displacement crises — over 7.7 million Venezuelans have emigrated. Statement-II is correct: Venezuela holds approximately 303 billion barrels of proven oil reserves, the largest in the world according to OPEC data. Since Statement-I is false, the correct option is that Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Only statement 2 is correct. The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA), launched in 2016, guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to pregnant women on the 9th of every month at government health facilities. The scheme covers women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy — but it does not include six months post-delivery care, making statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 is correct: private sector obstetricians, gynaecologists, physicians, and radiologists can voluntarily provide ANC services at designated government health facilities under the scheme.

Only statement 2 is correct. Under Article 342 of the Constitution, it is the President (not the Governor) who specifies Scheduled Tribes in relation to any State or Union Territory, after consulting the Governor of the concerned State. This makes statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 is correct: the Supreme Court has consistently held that a community recognised as Scheduled Tribe in one state does not automatically receive that designation in another state, as the criteria and historical basis for classification differ across states.

Only statement 1 is correct. Under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 and the CSR Rules, expenditures that directly benefit the company or its employees are excluded from CSR activities — for instance, employee welfare expenses already required under labour laws do not count as CSR. Statement 2 is incorrect: the law mandates a minimum CSR spending of 2% of the average net profits of the company over the preceding three financial years for companies meeting specified thresholds of net worth, turnover, or net profit.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. PM-SYM is a pension scheme for unorganised sector workers launched in 2019. Statement 1 is incorrect: the entry age group is 18 to 40 years (not 21 to 40). Statement 2 is correct: the monthly contribution varies by age — younger subscribers pay less. For example, a person entering at 18 contributes ₹55/month while one entering at 40 contributes ₹200/month; the government matches each contribution. Statement 3 is correct: the scheme guarantees ₹3,000 per month pension at age 60. Statement 4 is incorrect: family pension applies only to the spouse (50% of pension), not to daughters.

The NARI SHAKTI VANDAN ADHINIYAM (Constitution 106th Amendment Act, 2023) — popularly called the Women's Reservation Bill — provides for the reservation of one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi. It was enacted in September 2023 in the special session of Parliament. (1) PROVISIONS FROM 18th LOK SABHA — INCORRECT. The Act states that the reservation shall come into effect AFTER an exercise of DELIMITATION undertaken on the basis of the FIRST CENSUS taken after the commencement of the Act. The next Census is delayed (originally due 2021, postponed multiple times) and delimitation cannot be completed before the 2029 elections (the 19th Lok Sabha). So the provisions will NOT come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha (2024-2029) but from the 19th or later. INCORRECT. (2) IN FORCE FOR 15 YEARS — CORRECT. Article 334A (inserted by the 106th Amendment) provides that the women's reservation shall be in force for FIFTEEN YEARS from its commencement. Parliament can extend this period by law. CORRECT. (3) RESERVATION FOR SC WOMEN WITHIN SC QUOTA — CORRECT. The Act provides that within the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes (and Scheduled Tribes), one-third shall be FURTHER reserved for women belonging to those communities. This is a "double reservation" or "intersectional" provision — SC women get reserved seats both within the women's quota AND within the SC quota. The same applies for ST women. The Act does NOT provide for OBC reservation, which has been a subject of political debate. CORRECT. Hence 2 and 3 only — Option C. UPSC 2024 official answer: C.

Statement 2 is correct; statement 1 is incorrect. (1) STATE GOVERNMENT RECOGNISES SCs/STs — INCORRECT. Under ARTICLE 342 of the Constitution, the PRESIDENT OF INDIA — and not the State Government — declares which communities are Scheduled Tribes in respect of any State or Union Territory, after consultation with the Governor of that State. Once notified by Presidential Order, the list can be MODIFIED only by an ACT OF PARLIAMENT (under Article 342(2)) — not by the State Government and not even by another Presidential Order. The State Government can RECOMMEND changes to the Centre, but the ACTUAL recognition and notification power rests with the President for the initial list and Parliament for amendments. The same procedure applies for Scheduled Castes under Article 341. So states cannot unilaterally declare any community as ST. (2) STATE-SPECIFIC ST STATUS — CORRECT. The Scheduled Tribe status is STATE-SPECIFIC. A community recognised as ST in one state may NOT be recognised in another state. For example, the GOND tribe is listed as ST in Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and parts of central India, but Gond communities migrating to other states do not automatically retain ST status there. Similarly, the LAMBADIS are ST in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana but classified differently in other states. The MEENAS are ST in Rajasthan but not in Madhya Pradesh in the same form. This state-specific approach reflects the unique social, cultural, and historical context of each region. The Lokur Committee (1965) laid down the criteria — primitive traits, distinct culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact with the community at large, and backwardness. Hence only statement 2 — Option B. UPSC 2024 official answer: B.

ITALY, JAPAN, and SOUTH KOREA are all frequently mentioned for low birth rates, ageing populations, and declining populations. Nigeria and South Africa, by contrast, have YOUNG populations and HIGH or moderate birth rates. (1) ITALY — CORRECT. Italy has one of the lowest fertility rates in Europe (TFR ~1.24 in 2023) and the second-oldest population in the world (median age ~48 years). Italy's population has been DECLINING since 2014, dropping from ~60.7 million to ~58.8 million by 2024. (2) JAPAN — CORRECT. Japan is the textbook example of demographic decline. TFR ~1.20 (2023), one of the world's oldest populations (median age ~49 years), with population peaking at 128 million in 2008 and declining to ~125 million in 2024. The phenomenon has driven labour shortages, pension crises, and rural depopulation ("ghost villages"). (3) NIGERIA — INCORRECT. Nigeria has one of the world's YOUNGEST populations (median age ~17 years) and HIGH fertility (TFR ~5.1). Population is GROWING rapidly from 222 million (2024) and projected to reach ~400 million by 2050. (4) SOUTH KOREA — CORRECT. South Korea has the WORLD'S LOWEST FERTILITY RATE — TFR fell to 0.72 in 2023 (well below the replacement level of 2.1), and projections suggest it could fall further. The country's population peaked at ~52 million and is now declining. South Korean government has spent over $200 billion on pro-natal policies with limited success. (5) SOUTH AFRICA — INCORRECT. South Africa has a moderate fertility rate (TFR ~2.3) and a relatively YOUNG population (median age ~28 years). While its growth is slower than other African countries, it does NOT have an ageing or declining population at the level of Italy, Japan, or Korea. Hence 1, 2 and 4 — Option A. UPSC 2024 official answer: A.

All three statements are correct. Official MHA/PIB data confirms the decline: LWE-affected districts fell from 126 in 2013 to 90 in 2018, to 70 in 2021, to 38 in April 2024, and further to 18 by April 2025 — a consistent downward trend (statement 1). The SAMADHAN doctrine (2017) is the government's integrated multi-domain strategy: Smart Leadership, Aggressive Strategy, Motivation and Training, Actionable Intelligence, Dashboard-based KPIs, Harnessing Technology, Action Plan for Each Theatre, No access to Financing (statement 2). CPI (Maoist) was formed in September 2004 through the merger of the Marxist-Leninist Peoples War Group (PWG), active in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, with the Maoist Communist Centre of India (MCCI), active in Bihar and Jharkhand — creating the largest and most lethal Maoist organisation in India (statement 3).

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. I4C was conceptualised under the Cyber and Information Security Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs and was formally established as an Attached Office of MHA with effect from 1 July 2024. It coordinates among law enforcement agencies and provides a citizen interface for cybercrime reporting. I4C operates cybercrime.gov.in (the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal) and the toll-free helpline 1930 for immediate assistance in cases of financial cybercrime — enabling blocking of fraudulent transactions. Statement 3 is incorrect: I4C functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not MeitY. CERT-In (Indian Computer Emergency Response Team), which handles cyber security incidents, operates under MeitY.

The No Money for Terror (NMFT) Conference was started by France in 2018 as an international ministerial-level platform dedicated specifically to disrupting terrorist financing. The inaugural conference was held in Paris in April 2018. The 3rd conference was hosted by India in New Delhi in November 2022, with Union Home Minister Amit Shah presiding, reflecting India's growing role in global counter-terrorism financing efforts. The 4th NMFT Conference was held in 2025. The forum brings together finance ministries, interior ministries, and intelligence agencies to share best practices, discuss FATF standards, and build political will to choke funding to terrorist organisations.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 2023 PMLA amendments — made in alignment with Financial Action Task Force (FATF) recommendations — moved towards treating money laundering as an autonomous offence, reducing dependence on first proving a scheduled predicate offence to initiate prosecution. This was aimed at making India's anti-money laundering regime more effective and FATF-compliant. The amendments also redefined Politically Exposed Persons (PEPs) to include prominent foreign officials (heads of state, senior military officers, senior politicians of foreign countries), aligning with global standards for enhanced due diligence. Statement 3 is incorrect: the 2023 amendments actually increased disclosure obligations on non-profit organisations and NGOs — they must report financial transactions and are now subject to greater scrutiny to prevent misuse of charitable entities for terror financing.

All three statements are correct. Ransomware (e.g., WannaCry, Petya, LockBit) is malware that encrypts victim data and extorts cryptocurrency ransoms, increasingly targeting government systems, hospitals, and critical infrastructure (statement 1). The dark web is the portion of the internet accessible only through anonymising tools like The Onion Router (Tor) or I2P, providing anonymity for both whistleblowers and criminal activity including arms trafficking, narcotics sale, and cyberattack services (statement 2). The NCIIPC was established under Section 70A of the IT Act, 2000 (inserted by the 2008 amendment) to protect India's critical information infrastructure — sectors like power, banking, telecom, transport, and government — from cyber threats; it is an attached office of the National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO) under the PMO (statement 3).

All three statements are correct. The Free Movement Regime (FMR), introduced in 2018, permitted residents within 16 km of the India-Myanmar border to cross without passport or visa requirements — recognising the ethnic, cultural, and familial ties of communities straddling the border (statement 1). In February 2024, Home Minister Amit Shah announced that India would suspend the FMR and construct a comprehensive fence along the entire 1,643 km India-Myanmar border to prevent illegal immigration, drug smuggling, arms trafficking, and movement of insurgents — a significant policy reversal driven by security concerns post Myanmar's 2021 military coup (statement 2). The Assam Rifles, India's oldest paramilitary force operating under dual MHA-Army control, is the designated force for guarding the India-Myanmar border (statement 3).

NITRIC OXIDE (NO) is a small, simple gas molecule synthesized naturally in the human body that plays a critical role in DILATING BLOOD VESSELS (vasodilation) and increasing blood flow. THE BIOLOGY: NO is produced from the amino acid L-ARGININE by enzymes called NITRIC OXIDE SYNTHASES (NOS), of which there are three forms: endothelial NOS (eNOS) in blood vessel linings, neuronal NOS (nNOS) in nerve tissue, and inducible NOS (iNOS) in immune cells. THE MECHANISM: When NO is released by the endothelium (the inner lining of blood vessels), it diffuses into the underlying smooth muscle cells, where it activates the enzyme guanylate cyclase. This generates cyclic GMP (cGMP), which causes the smooth muscle to relax — DILATING the blood vessel and INCREASING blood flow. NOBEL PRIZE: The discovery of NO's role as a signalling molecule in the cardiovascular system earned Robert Furchgott, Louis Ignarro, and Ferid Murad the 1998 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine. CLINICAL IMPLICATIONS: This mechanism is the basis for several important drugs: (a) NITROGLYCERIN (used since the 19th century for chest pain in angina) works by releasing NO, dilating coronary arteries. (b) SILDENAFIL (Viagra) inhibits the enzyme that breaks down cGMP, prolonging the vasodilation effect — used for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. (c) Sodium nitroprusside is used in hypertensive emergencies. NO also functions as a neurotransmitter and immune defence molecule. (b) NITROUS OXIDE (N₂O) — "laughing gas," used as an anaesthetic, NOT a vasodilator. (c) NITROGEN DIOXIDE (NO₂) — toxic air pollutant from combustion, NOT synthesised by humans. (d) NITROGEN PENTOXIDE (N₂O₅) — a chemical compound, not biologically synthesised. UPSC 2024 official answer: A.

All four are Distributed Energy Resources. DERs are small-scale power generation or storage technologies (typically under 10 MW) located close to where electricity is used. Battery storage systems, biomass generators, fuel cells, and rooftop solar PV units all qualify as DERs. They can operate independently or be interconnected to the main grid, supporting grid resilience and decentralized energy supply.

Figs (Ficus species) have a highly specialized obligate mutualism with fig wasps (family Agaonidae). Each fig species is pollinated by one or a few specific wasp species — the wasps breed only inside figs and the figs can only be pollinated by those wasps. This is one of the most studied examples of coevolution; neither species can complete its life cycle without the other.

All three groups have poisonous species. Butterflies: monarch butterflies sequester toxic cardenolides from milkweed; some Heliconius species are poisonous due to cyanogenic compounds. Fish: pufferfish (fugu) contain tetrodotoxin; stonefish have venomous spines; some blowfish are poisonous. Frogs: poison dart frogs (Dendrobatidae) of South America are among the most toxic animals on Earth, secreting alkaloids through their skin.

Cicada (Order Hemiptera), Froghopper (Order Hemiptera — also known as spittlebug), and Pond skater/water strider (Order Hemiptera — Gerridae family) are all insects. Froghoppers are notable for being able to jump over 70 cm — the highest jump relative to body size of any insect. All three share the insect characteristics of six legs, three body segments, and an exoskeleton.

Both statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. Modern chewing gum bases often contain synthetic polymers such as polyethylene, polyvinyl acetate, and polyisobutylene — all forms of plastic. When gum is discarded (stuck to pavements etc.), these plastic components do not biodegrade, contributing to persistent environmental pollution. Natural chicle (from sapodilla tree) gums are biodegradable, but most commercial gums use synthetic polymer bases.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect: RTGs are NOT fission reactors — they generate electricity from the heat produced by the natural radioactive decay (not fission) of radioisotopes using the Seebeck effect (thermoelectric conversion). No nuclear chain reaction occurs. Statement 2 is correct: RTGs power spacecraft systems in deep-space missions where solar energy is insufficient, including NASA's Voyager, Cassini, New Horizons, and the Mars Science Laboratory (Curiosity/Perseverance rovers). Statement 3 is correct: Plutonium-238 (Pu-238), the preferred RTG fuel, can be produced as a by-product of nuclear weapons material production in reactors that breed Pu-239.

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Counterintuitively, giant (massive) stars have much shorter lifespans than dwarf (low-mass) stars — not longer. A star like our Sun (a G-type dwarf) lives for approximately 10 billion years, while a blue giant may exhaust its nuclear fuel in only a few million years. Statement-II correctly explains this: giant stars have far higher core temperatures and densities, driving enormously greater rates of nuclear fusion reactions. This rapid energy generation depletes their hydrogen fuel orders of magnitude faster than in dwarf stars, making their stellar lifetimes much shorter.

Nitric oxide (NO) is a critical signalling molecule in the human body responsible for vasodilation (widening of blood vessels) and increasing blood flow. It is produced in endothelial cells lining blood vessels from the amino acid L-arginine by the enzyme nitric oxide synthase (NOS). NO diffuses into adjacent smooth muscle cells, activating guanylate cyclase to produce cGMP, which triggers muscle relaxation and vasodilation. This mechanism is the basis for nitroglycerin's use in treating angina and sildenafil's (Viagra's) mechanism of action. The 1998 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded for the discovery of NO as a signalling molecule. Nitrous oxide (N₂O) is a laughing gas/anaesthetic, not a vasodilator.

All three plants belong to the pea family (Fabaceae / Leguminosae). Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea), Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum), and Soybean (Glycine max) are all legumes in the family Fabaceae. Key characteristics of Fabaceae members include: butterfly-shaped (papilionaceous) flowers, compound leaves, fruit as a legume/pod, and root nodules containing nitrogen-fixing Rhizobium bacteria. This family is the third-largest flowering plant family globally and is economically vital as a source of dietary protein, edible oil (groundnut, soybean), and nitrogen fixation for soil fertility.

Only one — Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) — is native to India. It is endemic to the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh and is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. Cashew (Anacardium occidentale) was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century from its native range in northeastern Brazil. Papaya (Carica papaya) is native to southern Mexico and Central America, introduced to India during the colonial period. Both cashew and papaya have naturalised widely in India but are not indigenous species. Red Sanders is notable for its valuable red timber and is subject to international trade controls under CITES.

None of the pairs are correctly matched. The Indri (Indri indri) is a large lemur endemic to Madagascar (not Brazil). The Elk (also called Wapiti, Cervus canadensis) is native to North America and East Asia (not Indonesia). The Bonobo (Pan paniscus) is found exclusively in the Democratic Republic of Congo in central Africa (not Madagascar). Each animal has been mismatched with a continent or country entirely different from its actual range. This question tests knowledge of biogeography and global fauna distribution — a common UPSC environment topic.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Lions (Panthera leo) are non-seasonal breeders in the wild, capable of mating and giving birth at any time of year — they do not follow a fixed annual breeding cycle (Statement 1 correct). Cheetahs (Acinonyx jubatus) are the only big cat that cannot roar; instead they produce chirps, yelps, and purrs — they lack the specialised larynx anatomy of the roaring big cats (lions, tigers, leopards, jaguars) in the genus Panthera (Statement 2 correct). Statement 3 is incorrect — both male and female leopards engage in scent-marking (urine spraying, rubbing on trees) to demarcate territories, though males tend to have larger territories.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct; statement 3 is incorrect. On 7 February 2021, approximately 27 million cubic metres of rock and glacier ice collapsed from the steep north face of Ronti Peak in the Nanda Devi region. This transformed rapidly into a massive debris flow — not a GLOF — as satellite imagery confirmed there was no glacial lake upstream. The resulting flash flood destroyed the 13 MW Rishiganga power project on the Rishi Ganga river and severely damaged the NTPC Tapovan-Vishnugad hydropower tunnel, with approximately 200 workers killed or missing. Statement 3 is incorrect: though widely misreported as a GLOF, scientific studies published in Science (2021) confirmed the primary trigger was a rock-ice avalanche.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct; statement 3 is incorrect. On 3–4 October 2023, heavy rainfall caused approximately 14.7 million cubic metres of frozen lateral moraine to collapse into South Lhonak glacial lake in north Sikkim, generating a tsunami-like wave that breached the moraine dam and drained roughly 50 million cubic metres of lake water. The resultant GLOF destroyed the 1,200 MW Teesta III dam at Chungthang before its gates could be opened. Over 90 people were confirmed dead, 31 major bridges were lost, and ~25,900 structures were damaged. Statement 3 is incorrect: the trigger was heavy rainfall causing moraine collapse, not an earthquake. The disaster highlighted the absence of an adequate early warning system for GLOFs in the Teesta basin.

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct; statement 3 is incorrect. A GLOF occurs when natural dams of moraine (glacial debris), ice, or bedrock holding back glacial meltwater fail suddenly, releasing large volumes of water (statement 1 correct). Glacial lakes are classified into moraine-dammed, ice-dammed, bedrock-dammed, and supraglacial types — all can experience outburst events (statement 2 correct). Statement 3 is incorrect: GLOFs dramatically affect downstream river systems — the 2013 Kedarnath flood, 2021 Chamoli disaster, and 2023 Sikkim GLOF all caused massive destruction far downstream in the Mandakini, Dhauliganga, and Teesta river valleys respectively. Statement 4 is correct: accelerated glacial melting due to rising temperatures is enlarging existing glacial lakes and creating new ones, as documented by ICIMOD and ISRO studies.

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct; statement 4 is incorrect. NDRF currently consists of 16 battalions — three each from BSF and CRPF, two each from CISF, ITBP, and SSB, and one from Assam Rifles. (Note: In earlier years, only five CAPFs contributed; Assam Rifles was added later.) Each battalion has an approximate strength of 1,149 personnel, giving a total NDRF strength of around 18,000+. Statement 4 is incorrect: Section 44 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 mandates NDRF for specialised response to both natural and man-made (technological) disasters — NDRF has responded to chemical, biological, radiological and nuclear (CBRN) emergencies in addition to floods, earthquakes, and cyclones.

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct; statement 4 is incorrect. Ahmedabad pioneered South Asia's first Heat Action Plan in 2013, implemented after the devastating 2010 heat wave, and studies have credited it with preventing approximately 1,190 deaths annually. Heat Action Plans use a colour-coded alert system: green (safe), yellow (be updated), orange (be prepared), and red (take action), corresponding to rising heat index thresholds. IMD declares a heat wave for plains stations when the maximum temperature reaches at least 40°C with a departure of 4.5–6.4°C above normal (or 6.5°C+ for a severe heat wave). Statement 4 is incorrect: heat waves were not part of the original DM Act 2005 or SDRF norms; they were added to the SDRF-eligible notified disaster list through central government notifications issued in 2015 and subsequent orders.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct; statement 2 is incorrect. The pilot Aapda Mitra scheme, implemented by NDMA (not NDRF), targeted training 6,000 community volunteers (200 per district) in the 30 most flood-prone districts across 25 states/UTs — statement 1 correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: the implementing agency is the NDMA, not NDRF, in coordination with State Disaster Management Authorities. Statement 3 is correct: following the pilot's success, the scheme was upscaled to cover 350 districts of all States and UTs with a target of training 1,00,000 volunteers to respond to floods, landslides, cyclones, and earthquakes. NDMA confirmed the Aapda Mitra expansion was based on requests from state governments.

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct; statement 3 is incorrect. CDRI was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the United Nations Climate Action Summit in New York on 23 September 2019 — originally with India as the sole founding nation, with the United Kingdom co-championing it at COP26 in 2021 (statement 1 broadly correct). CDRI's mandate specifically targets developing countries, SIDS, and LDCs — the nations most vulnerable to climate change — and not developed countries (statement 2 correct). Statement 3 is incorrect: CDRI is an international intergovernmental organisation, not a statutory body under India's DM Act 2005; it has a Headquarters Agreement with India. As of 2024, CDRI has over 40 member countries, international organisations, and private sector members (statement 4 correct).

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are among the seven Sendai Framework global targets; statement 3 is not. The seven targets are: (a) substantially reduce global disaster mortality; (b) substantially reduce the number of affected people; (c) reduce direct economic loss in relation to GDP; (d) substantially reduce disaster damage to critical infrastructure; (e) substantially increase the number of countries with national and local DRR strategies; (f) substantially enhance international cooperation to developing countries; (g) substantially increase availability of multi-hazard early warning systems and disaster risk information (statement 4). Statement 3 is incorrect: achieving zero carbon emissions is not a Sendai target — that falls under climate change frameworks such as the Paris Agreement. The Sendai Framework is a voluntary, non-binding agreement monitored through 38 indicators.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP) 2016 is India's first national plan under the DM Act and is explicitly aligned with the Sendai Framework's four priorities: understanding risk; strengthening governance; investing in DRR; and enhancing preparedness (statement 1 correct). The NDMP assigns specific roles to every central ministry and department — this whole-of-government approach is a defining feature of the plan (statement 2 correct). Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 47 of the DM Act provides for a National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF), but as of 2024, this fund has not been formally constituted and operationalised by the Central Government. Statement 4 is incorrect: the PMNRF is a charitable fund managed by the PM's office for various relief purposes, while the NDRF (National Disaster Response Fund) is a statutory fund under Section 46 of the DM Act managed by the Finance Ministry for disaster response — they are entirely separate instruments.