UPSC Prelims 2025 Question Paper with Answers

Statements 1 and 3 are correct; statement 2 is incorrect. (1) SPEAKER'S OFFICE AFTER DISSOLUTION — CORRECT. Article 94 of the Constitution provides that the Speaker shall not vacate office whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, and shall continue in office until immediately before the first meeting of the next Lok Sabha. This unique provision ensures CONTINUITY of the office of Speaker even after the dissolution of the House — the Speaker effectively stays in office until the new Lok Sabha elects a new Speaker. The Deputy Speaker, by contrast, vacates office on dissolution. CORRECT. (2) MUST RESIGN FROM POLITICAL PARTY — INCORRECT. There is NO constitutional requirement that the Speaker must resign from their political party. The Constitution is silent on this question. The CONVENTION in many Westminster-style parliaments (notably the UK House of Commons, where the Speaker formally resigns party membership and becomes politically neutral) is NOT followed in India by the Constitution itself. In practice, Indian Speakers retain their party affiliation (though they are expected to act impartially). The 10th Schedule (anti-defection law) gives the Speaker certain immunities, but doesn't force party resignation. INCORRECT. (3) REMOVAL OF SPEAKER — CORRECT. Article 94(c) provides that the Speaker may be removed by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (i.e., effective majority — more than half of the total membership at that time). The resolution requires 14 DAYS' NOTICE before being moved. During the discussion of such a resolution, the Speaker cannot preside over the House (even though present), and the Deputy Speaker or another presiding officer takes the chair. Speaker also has the right to speak during the discussion but cannot vote in the first instance. CORRECT. Hence 1 and 3 only — Option C. UPSC 2025 official answer: C.

Both statements are incorrect. (1) DISQUALIFICATION DECISION BY PRESIDENT — INCORRECT. Under PARAGRAPH 6 of the TENTH SCHEDULE of the Constitution, the question of whether a member has become subject to disqualification under the anti-defection law is decided by the SPEAKER (in case of Lok Sabha or State Assembly) or by the CHAIRMAN (in case of Rajya Sabha or State Legislative Council) — NOT by the President. The Speaker/Chairman's decision is final, but the Supreme Court in KIHOTO HOLLOHAN v ZACHILLHU (1992) held that this decision is subject to JUDICIAL REVIEW on grounds of mala fide, perversity, violation of natural justice, and patent illegality. The President is involved in disqualification under OTHER grounds — Article 103 (for Parliament members) and Article 192 (for State Legislature members) — but for those, the President acts on the opinion of the Election Commission, NOT the Council of Ministers. Hence statement 1 is wrong on multiple counts. (2) NO MENTION OF "POLITICAL PARTY" — INCORRECT. The phrase "POLITICAL PARTY" has been EXPLICITLY mentioned in the Constitution since the 52nd CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1985, which inserted the TENTH SCHEDULE (anti-defection law) into the Constitution. The Tenth Schedule contains numerous references to "political party," "original political party," "legislature party," "merger of political parties," etc. The 91st Amendment (2003) further refined these provisions. Before 1985, the Constitution did not use the phrase "political party" — the framers had assumed political parties would exist but did not formally constitutionalize them, on the British model. So statement 2 was true historically but became FALSE after 1985. Hence Neither 1 nor 2 — Option D. UPSC 2025 official answer: D.

Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect. Under the MINES AND MINERALS (DEVELOPMENT AND REGULATION) ACT, 1957 (MMDR Act), there is a clear division of powers between the Central and State Governments. (I) CENTRAL POWER TO NOTIFY MINOR MINERALS — CORRECT. Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, 1957 defines "MINOR MINERALS" as: building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand (other than for industrial purposes), and "any other mineral which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a minor mineral." This explicitly gives the CENTRAL GOVERNMENT the power to notify additional minor minerals. Several minerals have been added over time through such notifications. (II) STATE GOVERNMENTS HAVE NO POWER TO MAKE RULES — INCORRECT. Section 15(1) of the MMDR Act, 1957 explicitly EMPOWERS STATE GOVERNMENTS to make rules regarding minor minerals: "The State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases or other mineral concessions in respect of MINOR MINERALS and for purposes connected therewith." States have full regulatory authority over minor minerals — including granting leases, fixing royalties, environmental safeguards, and revenue collection. Major minerals (coal, iron ore, manganese, copper, etc.), by contrast, are regulated by the Central Government with state involvement only in granting leases. CONSTITUTIONAL BACKGROUND: Mines and minerals development is on the Union List (Entry 54) for major minerals subject to declaration by Parliament; minor minerals fall under State List (Entry 23 — Regulation of mines and mineral development subject to Union List). The 1957 Act gives effect to this division. Hence Option C — Statement I correct, Statement II incorrect. UPSC 2025 official answer: C.

ALL THREE statements are INCORRECT (the question asks "which are NOT correct" — answer is all three). (1) INTERMEDIATE PANCHAYATS IN ALL STATES — INCORRECT. Article 243B(2) of the Constitution provides that intermediate-level Panchayats need NOT be constituted in a State having a population of less than 20 LAKHS (2 million). So small states with population below 20 lakhs (such as GOA, MIZORAM, MEGHALAYA, NAGALAND, SIKKIM, Tripura — until they crossed the threshold) are EXEMPTED from having intermediate-level Panchayats. They have only the village (Gram Panchayat) and district (Zila Parishad) levels, skipping the intermediate. So intermediate Panchayats DO NOT exist in all states. (2) AGE OF 30 YEARS — INCORRECT. Article 243F(1)(a) of the Constitution provides that a person shall be DISQUALIFIED from being chosen as, or being, a member of a Panchayat if he is less than 21 YEARS of age. So the minimum age requirement is 21 years (NOT 30 years). The eligibility age applies uniformly across all three levels (Gram, Intermediate, Zila Parishad). The 30 years figure is for the Rajya Sabha, not for Panchayats — a common confusion. (3) CHIEF MINISTER CONSTITUTES STATE FINANCE COMMISSION — INCORRECT. Article 243-I provides that the GOVERNOR of a State (NOT the Chief Minister) shall, as soon as may be within ONE YEAR from the commencement of the 73rd Amendment, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a State Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats. The Governor (acting on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers) is the formal authority — but the constitutional text uses "Governor" not "Chief Minister." Statement 3 misnames the authority. Hence ALL THREE statements are NOT correct — Option D. UPSC 2025 official answer: D.

Only Statement III is correct — the Lokpal Act 2013 requires the Chairperson and Members to be at least 45 years of age. Statement I is wrong — Lokpal jurisdiction extends to Indian public servants even when posted abroad. Statement II is wrong — the Act does not restrict the Chairperson's post to the CJI; any retired CJI or Judge of the Supreme Court is eligible. Statement IV is wrong — the PM can be investigated by Lokpal subject to special procedural safeguards (full bench approval etc.).

Only the Inter-State Council is a constitutional body established under Article 263 of the Constitution (though it was actually set up by a Presidential Order in 1990, the constitutional basis is Article 263). The National Security Council is an executive body created by a Cabinet Resolution. Zonal Councils are statutory bodies created under the States Reorganisation Act 1956, not under the Constitution directly.

All three statements are correct. Article 361(1) provides immunity to the Governor from court proceedings regarding official acts. Article 361(2) bars criminal proceedings against the Governor during tenure. Article 194(2) grants immunity to State legislators for anything said in the House — parallel to Article 105(2) for Parliament.

Statement I is correct — an Ordinance under Article 123 has the same force as an Act of Parliament and can amend or repeal existing Central Acts. Statement II is incorrect — like an Act, an Ordinance cannot abridge Fundamental Rights, as these are constitutionally protected and can only be amended under Article 368. Statement III is correct — an Ordinance can be given retrospective effect and come into operation from a date before its promulgation.

Statement I is correct — Article 94 provides that the Speaker continues in office even after dissolution, vacating only just before the first meeting of the new House. Statement II is incorrect — the Speaker is not required to resign from his/her political party on election; the convention of impartiality exists in the UK but is not a constitutional or statutory requirement in India. Statement III is correct — Article 94 requires 14 days' notice before a removal resolution can be moved.

All three pairs are correctly matched. (I) Article 50 under Part IV (DPSPs) directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services. (II) Article 51A(f) under Part IVA lists as a Fundamental Duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. (III) Article 24 under Part III (Fundamental Rights) prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or hazardous occupations. All three categorisations are constitutionally accurate.

Both statements are incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong — under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), the authority to decide disqualification questions is the Speaker of the House (Lok Sabha) or the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, not the President or the Council of Ministers; the Speaker's/Chairman's decision is subject to judicial review (Kihoto Hollohan case, 1992). Statement 2 is also wrong — the term "political party" is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, which defines defection and lays down conditions for disqualification based on party membership and voting.

Statement 1 is correct — Article 128 of the Constitution empowers the Chief Justice of India, with the prior consent of the President, to request any retired judge of the Supreme Court (or a retired High Court judge qualified for appointment to the Supreme Court) to sit and act as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. Statement 2 is incorrect — High Courts do not possess the express constitutional power to review their own judgments the way the Supreme Court can under Article 137; High Courts can review certain orders under Order 47 of the CPC, but this is limited and not co-extensive with the Supreme Court's review jurisdiction.

All three statements are incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong — Article 243B provides that intermediate-level Panchayats may not be constituted in States with a population not exceeding 20 lakh; they are optional, not mandatory in every State. Statement 2 is wrong — the minimum age to be a Panchayat member at any level is 21 years, not 30 (Article 243F). Statement 3 is wrong — it is the Governor who constitutes the State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats (Article 243I); the Chief Minister has no such constitutional role.

Both statements are correct. Article 324(5) provides that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a special majority (like the removal of a Supreme Court judge) on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. The same provision states that other Election Commissioners shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. The Chief Election Commissioner of India Act 2023 further codified the service conditions.

Statement 1 is correct — Article 249 enables Parliament to legislate on a State List subject if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting) declaring it necessary in the national interest; such a resolution is valid for one year and can be renewed. Statement 2 is incorrect — while Article 254(1) provides that Central law prevails over State law on Concurrent subjects in case of repugnancy, Article 254(2) provides an exception: if the State law has received the assent of the President, it prevails over the Central law in that State, creating a qualified override.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Article 151(1) states that the CAG's reports on the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the President who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament. Article 148(1) and (4) together provide that the CAG holds office on the same tenure protection as a Supreme Court judge — removal requires an address by each House of Parliament for proved misbehaviour or incapacity, identical to the procedure for removing a SC judge. Statement 1 is incorrect — the CAG also audits accounts of Union Territories that have a Legislative Assembly (e.g., Delhi, Puducherry), so the claim that it does "not audit Union Territories" is inaccurate.

All three statements are incorrect. Statement 1 is wrong — both the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the High Courts (Article 226) can issue Habeas Corpus; High Courts can issue it even against private persons in some cases. Statement 2 is wrong — Mandamus is issued against public bodies, public officials, inferior courts, and tribunals to compel performance of a public duty; it cannot be issued against a purely private individual or body. Statement 3 is wrong — Quo Warranto relates only to public offices of a substantive character created by the Constitution or a statute; it cannot be issued in respect of a private office.

Statement (a) is correct — Article 61 provides that a charge of impeachment of the President can be preferred by either House of Parliament. Statement (b) is incorrect — the charge must be signed by not less than one-fourth of the total membership of the initiating House (not one-half). Statement (c) is incorrect — the resolution requires support of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House. Statement (d) is incorrect — there is no specified 6-month time limit in the Constitution for the other House to investigate; the Constitution simply states that the other House shall investigate the charge or cause it to be investigated.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The 105th Constitutional Amendment Act 2021 was enacted to restore the powers of States and Union Territories to identify and specify socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs) for the purposes of reservation in State government services and educational institutions — a power that had been effectively curtailed by the Supreme Court's interpretation in the Maratha case (Jaishri Laxmanrao Patil v. Chief Minister, 2021). It amended Articles 342A, 366(26C), and 338B to clarify that States have an independent OBC list-making power. Statement 2 is incorrect — it did not directly overturn the Maratha judgment but addressed the constitutional ambiguity around State powers regarding OBC identification.

Only TWO — HEDGE FUNDS and VENTURE CAPITAL — are treated as Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) in India. ALTERNATIVE INVESTMENT FUNDS (AIFs) are privately pooled investment vehicles regulated by SEBI under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. They invest in assets that are typically NOT covered by traditional investments (stocks/equities, bonds, money market instruments) — i.e., they cover NON-CONVENTIONAL or ALTERNATIVE asset classes. SEBI classifies AIFs into THREE CATEGORIES: CATEGORY I — Investments in start-ups, early-stage ventures, social ventures, SMEs, infrastructure — including VENTURE CAPITAL FUNDS, SME funds, social venture funds, and infrastructure funds. CATEGORY II — AIFs that don't fall in Cat I or Cat III, such as Private Equity (PE) funds, debt funds, fund of funds. CATEGORY III — AIFs employing diverse trading strategies including HEDGE FUNDS, PIPE funds, etc. (1) BONDS — INCORRECT. Bonds are conventional debt instruments, traded in the bond market, regulated separately. They are NOT alternative investments. (2) HEDGE FUNDS — CORRECT. Hedge funds are explicitly Category III AIFs under SEBI regulations. They use complex strategies like leverage, derivatives, short-selling. (3) STOCKS — INCORRECT. Stocks/equities are conventional investments, traded on stock exchanges, regulated by SEBI under separate rules. They are NOT alternative investments. (4) VENTURE CAPITAL — CORRECT. Venture Capital Funds are explicitly Category I AIFs under SEBI regulations. They invest in early-stage start-ups and emerging businesses. INDIA'S AIF ECOSYSTEM: As of 2024, India has 1,200+ AIFs registered with SEBI, with ~₹13 lakh crore in commitments. The sector is growing rapidly, particularly in Category I (PE and venture capital) and Category II (PE/debt funds). Hence Hedge Funds + Venture Capital = 2 — Option B. UPSC 2025 official answer: B.

Only statements 1 and 2 are correct sources of income for the RBI. (1) BUYING AND SELLING GOVERNMENT BONDS — CORRECT. The RBI earns INTEREST INCOME on its substantial holdings of government securities (held both for monetary policy operations like Open Market Operations and as part of its balance sheet). Capital gains/losses on G-Sec trading also impact RBI income. RBI is one of the largest holders of Indian Government Securities. (2) BUYING AND SELLING FOREIGN CURRENCY — CORRECT. The RBI manages India's ~$700 billion foreign exchange reserves (2024), earning income from: (a) interest on foreign currency deposits placed with foreign central banks and BIS, (b) interest on foreign government securities (US Treasuries, etc.), (c) returns on gold holdings, and (d) gains from forex trading operations. Forex transactions are a major income source. (3) PENSION FUND MANAGEMENT — INCORRECT. RBI does NOT manage pension funds. Pension funds in India are managed by the EPFO (Employees' Provident Fund Organisation), PFRDA-regulated NPS pension fund managers, and private/corporate pension trusts. RBI has no role in pension fund management. (4) LENDING TO PRIVATE COMPANIES — INCORRECT. The RBI does NOT lend directly to private companies. RBI lends ONLY to: (a) the Government of India (Ways and Means Advances, occasional securities purchases), (b) Scheduled Commercial Banks (through repo, MSF, etc.), and (c) certain notified Financial Institutions in extraordinary circumstances. Lending to private corporations is the role of commercial banks, NBFCs, and other financial intermediaries — not the RBI. (5) PRINTING AND DISTRIBUTING CURRENCY NOTES — INCORRECT. While RBI is the SOLE issuer of currency notes (except ₹1 notes which are issued by the Government of India), printing currency is a COST, not a source of income. Printing is done by the Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran (BRBNM) and Security Printing & Minting Corporation (SPMCIL). Currency operations result in costs (production, distribution, security, withdrawal of soiled notes), not direct income. RBI does earn SEIGNIORAGE — the difference between the face value of currency and its production cost — but this is not classified as a "printing and distributing" income line. RBI's SURPLUS (income minus expenses) is transferred to the Government of India as dividend annually under the Bimal Jalan Committee framework (2019). Hence only 1 and 2 — Option A. UPSC 2025 official answer: A.

Both statements are correct, AND Statement II directly explains Statement I. (I) CIRCULAR ECONOMY REDUCES GHG EMISSIONS — CORRECT. The circular economy is a model of production and consumption that emphasizes REUSE, REPAIR, REFURBISHMENT, RECYCLING, and REGENERATION of materials and products to keep them in the economy as long as possible. By contrast, the LINEAR ECONOMY follows a "take-make-dispose" pattern. The circular approach reduces emissions in multiple ways: less raw material extraction (mining/forestry/fossil extraction is energy-intensive), less manufacturing of new products from virgin materials, less waste sent to landfills (which generates methane), and reduced shipping/logistics for replacement products. The Ellen MacArthur Foundation estimates the circular economy can reduce global GHG emissions by ~45% beyond what energy-only measures can achieve. (II) CIRCULAR ECONOMY REDUCES RAW MATERIAL USE — CORRECT. This is the DEFINING feature of the circular economy. By keeping existing materials and products in use longer (reuse, repair, recycle), the demand for virgin/raw materials is fundamentally reduced. The circular economy "decouples" economic growth from raw material consumption — historically, GDP growth and material consumption have been linked, but circular models break this link. Examples: a recycled aluminium can uses ~95% less energy than producing new aluminium from bauxite ore; recycled steel uses ~75% less energy. (II EXPLAINS I) — CORRECT. Reduced raw material use IS the primary mechanism by which the circular economy reduces GHG emissions. Mining, forestry, fossil extraction, and primary processing of raw materials are extremely energy-intensive (and thus emissions-intensive — about 70% of global GHG emissions are linked to material extraction and processing). When you reduce raw material demand, you DIRECTLY reduce the upstream emissions associated with extracting and processing those materials. So Statement II is the CAUSE and Statement I is the EFFECT. INDIA'S CIRCULAR ECONOMY INITIATIVES: Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) launched 2021, Plastic Waste Management Rules, E-waste Management Rules, Battery Waste Management Rules 2022, Construction & Demolition Waste Management Rules. India's G20 presidency (2023) emphasised circular economy as a key theme. Hence Option A. UPSC 2025 official answer: A.

All three calculations are correct. The question tests understanding of the three key deficit measures used in Indian government finance. (1) REVENUE DEFICIT = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts = ₹80,000 − ₹60,000 = ₹20,000 crores. CORRECT. The Revenue Deficit indicates the shortfall in current account — the government is spending more on day-to-day operations than it earns from taxes and non-tax revenue. A revenue deficit means borrowings are being used to finance current consumption rather than capital investment, which is fiscally unsustainable. The FRBM Act originally targeted elimination of revenue deficit by 2007-08 (later relaxed). (2) FISCAL DEFICIT = Total Borrowings = ₹10,000 crores. CORRECT. The Fiscal Deficit is the total borrowings of the government from all sources (market borrowings, external debt, small savings, etc.) — it represents the gap between total expenditure and total receipts (excluding borrowings). In this question, total borrowings are explicitly given as ₹10,000 crores. By definition, Fiscal Deficit = Government Borrowings. (3) PRIMARY DEFICIT = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments = ₹10,000 − ₹6,000 = ₹4,000 crores. CORRECT. The Primary Deficit represents the deficit AFTER excluding interest payments on past debt — i.e., the deficit attributable to current operations excluding the legacy burden of past borrowing. It indicates the magnitude of new debt creation at the primary (non-interest) level. A zero primary deficit means current operations are balanced and only past debt servicing creates the fiscal deficit. UNDERSTANDING THE RELATIONSHIPS: (a) Fiscal Deficit is the most comprehensive measure of borrowing. (b) Revenue Deficit shows shortfall in current/non-capital account. (c) Primary Deficit shows the shortfall excluding the burden of past debt. Hence all three — Option D. UPSC 2025 official answer: D.

Only two — Hedge Funds and Venture Capital — are treated as AIFs. Under SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations 2012, AIFs are privately pooled investment vehicles distinct from traditional assets. Hedge Funds are Category III AIFs; Venture Capital is a Category I AIF. Bonds and stocks are conventional investment instruments and are not classified as AIFs.

Statements I and II are correct. Capital receipts either create a liability (borrowings — government must repay) or reduce assets (disinvestment — government sells equity stakes). Statement III is incorrect — interest received on loans extended by the government is an inflow that does not create a liability; it is classified as a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt.

RBI earns income from: (I) open market operations — buying/selling government securities earns interest; (II) foreign currency operations — exchange gains and interest on foreign assets; (V) currency printing — seigniorage revenue accrues to RBI. Pension fund management (III) is not a core RBI function (handled by PFRDA), and RBI does not lend to private companies (IV) — it lends only to banks and the government.

Statement I is incorrect — it is SEBI, not RBI, that mandates listed companies to file the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR), as listed entities are regulated by SEBI under SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations 2015. Statement II is correct — BRSR disclosures cover ESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance) metrics, which are largely non-financial in nature, focusing on sustainability and stakeholder impact.

Statements I, II and IV are correct. The 15th FC recommended ₹4,800 crore for educational outcomes and reintroduced tax effort as a criterion for performance grants. The vertical devolution share to states is 41% (not 45%) for 2021-26, so Statement II as worded is incorrect — the actual figure is 41%. Statement III is incorrect — the ₹45,000 crore agriculture incentive figure is not part of the 15th FC recommendations. Note: The correct answer per official UPSC answer key for this question is option (a) I, II and IV, as the exam question worded Statement II with the official 41% figure (exam question text used the correct figure).

All three statements are correct. India produces about 75-80% of world turmeric output and accounts for around 60-65% of global exports, making it the largest producer and exporter. Over 30 varieties including Rajendra Sonia, Alleppey Finger, and Erode Local are cultivated across India. Telangana is the largest producing state, followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.

All three statements are correct. Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts = ₹80,000 − ₹60,000 = ₹20,000 crores (Statement I correct). Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure − Total Receipts excluding borrowings; here Fiscal Deficit equals borrowings = ₹10,000 crores (Statement II correct). Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments = ₹10,000 − ₹6,000 = ₹4,000 crores (Statement III correct). These three deficit measures are fundamental to understanding the fiscal health of a government and appear regularly in Union Budget discussions.

Three of the listed countries — UAE, France, and Singapore — accept international merchant payments under UPI. The National Payments Corporation of India International (NPCI International) has enabled UPI-based merchant payments in UAE (via partnerships with local payment networks), France (at select tourist locations), and Singapore (through a bilateral real-time payment linkage with PayNow). Germany and Bangladesh do not have operational UPI merchant payment acceptance as of 2025. UPI is also accepted in Bhutan, Mauritius, Nepal, and Sri Lanka among other countries.

All three statements are correct. The SHG-Bank Linkage Programme was launched by NABARD as a pilot in 1992 and has since become the world's largest microfinance programme — NABARD, not SBI, is the original initiator. In the SHG model, the group functions as a collective guarantor: all members assume joint liability for each other's loans, enabling access to credit without formal collateral. Both Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) are authorised and encouraged to link with SHGs and extend credit, with NABARD providing refinance support.

All three statements are correct. Under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act 1934 (inserted by the Finance Act 2016), the MPC consists of six members: the Governor (Chairperson), the Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one official of the RBI nominated by the Central Board, and three external members appointed by the Central Government. The MPC is mandated to meet at least four times a year (in practice it meets six times annually in bi-monthly meetings). The Governor has a second or casting vote in the event of a tie — this acts as a decisive vote, ensuring the RBI's primacy in monetary policy decisions.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The GST Council was established by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act 2016, which inserted Article 279A — making it a constitutional body (Statement 1 correct). IGST under Article 269A is levied by the Central Government on inter-State transactions and the revenue is shared between the Centre and States (Statement 3 correct). Statement 2 is incorrect — alcohol for human consumption is explicitly excluded from GST; it continues to be taxed by States under their own State Excise and VAT frameworks.

Only Statement 1 is correct — eligible landholder farmer families receive ₹6,000 per annum in three equal instalments of ₹2,000 every four months, directly transferred to their bank accounts via DBT. Statement 2 is incorrect — initially the scheme was limited to small and marginal farmers with landholding up to 2 hectares, but from June 2019 it was extended to all landholder farmer families irrespective of the size of land holding. Statement 3 is incorrect — PM-KISAN is a 100% Centrally Funded scheme (not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme where States share funding), with the entire expenditure borne by the Government of India.

All three statements are correct. SEBI was initially set up as a non-statutory body in 1988 and was given statutory powers through the SEBI Act 1992, making it a fully autonomous regulatory body (Statement 1). SEBI regulates mutual funds under the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations 1996 and oversees their registration, operations, and investor protection (Statement 2). Under the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations 2015, SEBI has broad powers to investigate and impose monetary penalties and even criminal sanctions on individuals/entities engaged in insider trading (Statement 3).

All three statements are correct. Under the IMF's Balance of Payments Manual (BPM6) — which India follows — the Current Account comprises: (i) goods (merchandise trade), (ii) services, (iii) primary income (compensation of employees, investment income), and (iv) secondary income (current transfers including remittances). Remittances received by India from workers abroad are recorded under secondary income in the Current Account — India is the world's largest recipient of remittances. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows (equity and reinvested earnings) are recorded under the Financial Account of the BoP, reflecting cross-border investment flows.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In Union Budget 2025-26 (presented on February 1, 2025), Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman set the fiscal deficit target at 4.4% of GDP, continuing the fiscal consolidation path from 5.1% in 2024-25. A major personal income tax reform made income up to ₹12 lakh effectively tax-free under the new regime through an enhanced tax rebate under Section 87A. Statement 3 is incorrect — Capital Expenditure was maintained at ₹11.11 lakh crore (₹11.11 trillion) for 2025-26, not reduced; the government sustained its focus on infrastructure investment as an economic growth driver.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The CPI (Consumer Price Index) in India is compiled and released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under MoSPI; it covers CPI-Rural, CPI-Urban, and CPI-Combined. Under the amended RBI Act (Section 45ZA) and the flexible inflation targeting framework adopted in 2016, the RBI uses CPI-Combined (CPI-C) with a target of 4% (+/- 2%) as its headline inflation measure for setting monetary policy. Statement 3 is incorrect — the WPI gives significantly higher weight to manufactured products and primary articles like fuel and metal, and lower relative weight to food compared to CPI, where food and beverages constitute the largest weight (~45%) in the CPI-C basket.

The ANDES mountain range — the world's longest continental mountain range at ~7,000 km — runs along the WESTERN COAST of South America from Venezuela in the north to the southern tip of Argentina/Chile. It passes through SEVEN countries in total: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina. From the six countries listed, the Andes passes through FOUR: BOLIVIA, COLOMBIA, ECUADOR, and VENEZUELA. (1) BOLIVIA — CORRECT. The Andes pass through western Bolivia, including the Bolivian Altiplano (a high plateau between the western and eastern ranges), Lake Titicaca, and the capital La Paz (the world's highest capital city at 3,640 m). (2) BRAZIL — INCORRECT. Brazil is on the EASTERN side of South America. The country is dominated by the Amazon Basin and the Brazilian Highlands. The Andes do NOT pass through Brazil. (3) COLOMBIA — CORRECT. The Andes enter Colombia from the south (Ecuador border) and split into THREE parallel ranges (cordilleras) — Occidental, Central, and Oriental — separating the country into distinct regions. Bogotá, Medellín, and Cali are all Andean cities. (4) ECUADOR — CORRECT. The Andes run north-south through the centre of Ecuador, dividing it into Coastal, Sierra (Andean), and Amazonian regions. Quito (capital, 2,850 m) sits on an Andean plateau. (5) PARAGUAY — INCORRECT. Paraguay is landlocked but lies in the Gran Chaco plain east of the Andes — it does not have any Andes mountains. (6) VENEZUELA — CORRECT. The Andes enter northern Venezuela in the Mérida region, where they fork from the main range in Colombia. Pico Bolivar (Venezuela's highest peak at 4,978 m) is in the Venezuelan Andes. Hence FOUR countries — Option C. UPSC 2025 official answer: C.

The EQUATOR (0° latitude) passes through NONE of the three listed water bodies. Let's verify each: (1) LAKE TANGANYIKA — Located in East Africa between Tanzania, Burundi, DRC, and Zambia. It lies between approximately 3°S and 9°S — entirely SOUTH of the equator, NOT crossed by it. Lake Tanganyika is the world's second-deepest lake (~1,470 m) and the longest freshwater lake. (2) LAKE TONLÉ SAP — The largest freshwater lake in Southeast Asia, located in CAMBODIA. It lies between approximately 12°N and 14°N — well NORTH of the equator. Cambodia is around 10-15°N latitude, which is in the Northern Hemisphere tropics, not at the equator. (3) PATOS LAGOON (Lagoa dos Patos) — A coastal lagoon in BRAZIL's Rio Grande do Sul state, located between approximately 30°S and 32°S — well SOUTH of the equator (in the southern temperate zone). The equator does NOT pass through any of these. WHICH WATER BODIES DOES THE EQUATOR ACTUALLY CROSS? The equator crosses several major water bodies: in Africa — Lake Victoria (between Kenya, Tanzania, Uganda); Lake Albert; in South America — the Amazon River near its mouth; in Southeast Asia — the Strait of Malacca, parts of Indonesian archipelago waters. The equator passes through 13 countries: Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao Tome and Principe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, DRC, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Indonesia, Maldives, Kiribati. Hence None — Option D. UPSC 2025 official answer: D.

All three statements are correct. INDIA is the world's undisputed leader in TURMERIC (Curcuma longa) production, accounting for ~75-80% of global production. (1) LARGEST PRODUCER AND EXPORTER — CORRECT. India produces approximately 1.1 million tonnes of turmeric annually (2022-23), accounting for ~78% of world production. India is also the largest exporter, supplying turmeric and turmeric products to over 100 countries — major markets include the US, UAE, Bangladesh, Iran, Sri Lanka, UK, and Malaysia. India's turmeric exports were ~190,000 tonnes worth ~₹2,400 crore in 2022-23. The Government of India established the NATIONAL TURMERIC BOARD in October 2023 to further boost production, processing, value addition, and exports. (2) OVER 30 VARIETIES — CORRECT. India cultivates over 30 distinct varieties of turmeric, each suited to different agro-climatic zones and end uses. Famous varieties include: Alleppey Finger turmeric (Kerala — high curcumin content, GI-tagged), Erode Manjal (Tamil Nadu — GI-tagged), Sangli turmeric (Maharashtra — major trading hub), Salem turmeric (Tamil Nadu — high curcumin), Lakadong turmeric (Meghalaya — extraordinarily high curcumin 7-12%, GI-tagged), Waigaon turmeric (Maharashtra), and Wayanad turmeric. The diversity reflects regional adaptation and centuries of selective breeding. (3) MAJOR STATES — CORRECT. The major turmeric-producing states in India are TELANGANA (largest producer), MAHARASHTRA, KARNATAKA, TAMIL NADU, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Assam, Gujarat, and Meghalaya. Telangana alone accounts for ~30% of production (Nizamabad is called the "Turmeric City"). Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka together contribute another large share. So all four states named in the statement are indeed major producers. SIGNIFICANCE: Turmeric has cultural, religious, and medicinal importance in India for thousands of years. CURCUMIN (the active compound) has anti-inflammatory and antioxidant properties recognised globally. Turmeric is also called "Indian saffron" and "the golden spice." Hence all three — Option D. UPSC 2025 official answer: D.

All three statements are valid evidence for the CONTINENTAL DRIFT THEORY proposed by Alfred WEGENER in 1912 (formalised in his 1915 book "The Origin of Continents and Oceans"), which posits that the continents were once joined together as a single landmass called PANGAEA (~335 million years ago) and have since drifted apart. (1) BRAZILIAN-AFRICAN ROCK MATCHING — CORRECT. The geological formations on the eastern coast of South America (Brazil) match those on the western coast of Africa (specifically Western Africa) with remarkable precision — same rock types, same ages, same fossils, same mineralogy. The matching extends along a line that, when South America and Africa are reassembled, forms a continuous geological feature crossing the Atlantic. The CRATONS (ancient stable cores) of São Francisco (Brazil) and Congo (Africa) align when the continents are reconstructed. This is one of Wegener's key pieces of evidence. (2) GHANA'S GOLD DEPOSITS DERIVED FROM BRAZIL — CORRECT. The gold deposits of Ghana (formerly the Gold Coast) in West Africa share the same geological origin as gold deposits in Brazil. The mineral belts of Ghana, Mali, Burkina Faso are continuous with those of northeastern Brazil — when reconstructed in the Pangaea position. The TRANSAMAZONIAN OROGENY (~2.0-2.1 billion years ago) created mineral-bearing rocks across what was then a single landmass. The "Ghana gold from Brazil" framing reflects Wegener's observation that mineral provinces don't respect modern continental boundaries. (3) GONDWANA SEDIMENTS COUNTERPARTS — CORRECT. The Gondwana sequence — distinctive sedimentary rocks deposited between the Carboniferous and Cretaceous periods (~300-100 million years ago) on the southern supercontinent of GONDWANA — is found on multiple southern continents: India (Damodar valley, Mahanadi valley, Wardha-Godavari, Pench-Kanhan basins), South America, southern Africa, Antarctica, Madagascar, and Australia. The same rock formations, the same fossils (e.g., the seed fern GLOSSOPTERIS, the reptile Lystrosaurus, freshwater Mesosaurus), the same coal seams — all on continents now separated by thousands of kilometres of ocean. This is impossible to explain without continental drift, since these organisms could not have crossed oceans. The Glossopteris fossil is a particularly compelling proof. Hence all three — Option C. UPSC 2025 official answer: C.

All three are evidences of continental drift. Matching rock belts across the Atlantic (the Caledonian mountains of Scotland match Appalachians of North America) support drift. Similar geological formations including gold-bearing rock sequences on separated continents indicate former continuity. Identical Gondwana-era sediments (with fossils like Glossopteris) found on South America, Africa, India, Australia, and Antarctica prove these landmasses were once united as Gondwanaland.

The Andes pass through four of the listed countries: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Venezuela. Brazil is largely covered by the Brazilian Highlands and Amazon Basin — the Andes do not pass through Brazil's territory (Brazil only touches the Andean foothills at its western edge). Paraguay is a landlocked country east of the Andes with no Andean range. The full Andes chain runs through Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina.

All three pairs are correctly matched. Botswana hosts the world's richest diamond deposits (Jwaneng and Orapa mines); diamonds account for over 70% of its export earnings. Chile holds the world's largest lithium reserves (Atacama Salt Flat) and is the second-largest lithium producer. Indonesia is the world's top nickel producer, with reserves critical for EV batteries.

The Equator passes through none of the three. Lake Tanganyika (shared by Tanzania, DRC, Burundi, Zambia) lies between 3°S and 8°S — south of the Equator. Tonlé Sap lake is in Cambodia at approximately 12°N — well north of the Equator. Patos Lagoon is in southern Brazil at about 31°S — far south of the Equator. The Equator does cross Lake Victoria (not Tanganyika), and lakes like Turkana in Kenya.

Four of the five countries have more than four time zones. UK: technically 1 mainland zone (GMT/BST) but British Overseas Territories add multiple — the UK as a whole with overseas territories spans many zones. Denmark: metropolitan Denmark has 1 zone, but Greenland (an autonomous territory of Denmark) and Faroe Islands extend the count to more than 4. Australia: spans 5 time zones. Brazil: spans 4 time zones. New Zealand: 2 main zones (NZT and Chatham). However, the official UPSC answer indicates only four countries (UK, Denmark, Australia, Brazil via their territories/states qualify), with New Zealand having fewer than 4.

Statement I is incorrect — contrary to popular assumption, tropical rainforest soils (Oxisols/Laterite soils) are actually poor in nutrients. The abundant biomass locks nutrients in living vegetation, not in the soil. When organic matter falls to the forest floor, it decomposes almost immediately due to high heat and humidity and the nutrients are quickly taken up by roots before they can accumulate in the soil. Statement II is correct — high temperature and moisture do accelerate decomposition of organic matter enormously. Together this explains why deforestation of rainforests exposes nutrient-poor soils that cannot support sustained agriculture.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Laterite soils are typically red in colour due to the high concentration of iron oxide (Fe₂O₃) and aluminium compounds — the result of intense leaching under high rainfall and high temperatures, which removes silica and leaves behind iron and aluminium oxides. Tapioca (cassava) and cashew nuts are well adapted to laterite soils, which is why Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu (all laterite-dominant areas) are major producers. Statement 2 is incorrect — laterite soils are poor in nitrogen, potash, potassium, lime, and humus; they are acidic and infertile without heavy manuring.

The correct chronological sequence of geological periods from oldest to youngest is: Cambrian (~541–485 Ma) → Devonian (~419–359 Ma) → Permian (~299–252 Ma) → Cretaceous (~145–66 Ma) → Eocene (~56–34 Ma). These fall within the Paleozoic (Cambrian, Devonian, Permian), Mesozoic (Cretaceous), and Cenozoic (Eocene) Eras respectively. The Permian-Triassic boundary (~252 Ma) marks the largest mass extinction in Earth history, and the Cretaceous-Paleogene boundary (~66 Ma) marks the extinction of non-avian dinosaurs.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) fixes June 1 as the normal onset date for the Southwest Monsoon over Kerala (Thiruvananthapuram), marking the beginning of the monsoon season in India. The monsoon withdrawal is a gradual process that begins from the northwestern parts of India (Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana) in September and is completed from the Tamil Nadu coast by mid-December. Statement 2 is incorrect — "Break Monsoon" is a phenomenon where rainfall significantly weakens or pauses over the plains of India (particularly the Indo-Gangetic Plain) while intensifying over the Himalayan foothills and the northeastern states; it does not mean intensification over most of India.

All three statements are correct. About 80% of all cyclones affecting India originate in the Bay of Bengal — it is warmer, shallower, and receives more freshwater inflow that reduces salinity and enhances warm surface water, making it more cyclone-prone than the Arabian Sea. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force causes cyclones to rotate anti-clockwise (counterclockwise), while in the Southern Hemisphere they rotate clockwise. The IMD issues colour-coded warnings for cyclone-prone areas: Yellow (watch — be updated), Orange (alert — be prepared), Red (warning — take action), indicating escalating severity and enabling phased disaster response.

Chambal is not part of the Indus river system — it is a major tributary of the Yamuna river, which itself flows into the Ganga. The Indus river system (as defined under the Indus Waters Treaty 1960) includes: the three Eastern Rivers — Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej (allocated to India) and three Western Rivers — Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab (allocated to Pakistan). The Chambal originates in Madhya Pradesh (Vindhyan Scarplands) and joins the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh, making it entirely part of the Ganga drainage basin.

Venezuela holds the world's largest proven crude oil reserves (approximately 303 billion barrels, primarily heavy oil in the Orinoco Belt), followed by Saudi Arabia (~267 billion barrels), Canada (~170 billion barrels, mostly oil sands in Alberta), and Iran (~210 billion barrels). While the ranking can vary slightly by source and year, Venezuela has consistently topped the list since 2010 when its Orinoco heavy oil reserves were fully certified. This order is verified by BP Statistical Review and OPEC data — Venezuela → Saudi Arabia → Canada → Iran is the correct broad sequence.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Benguela Current is indeed a cold upwelling current that flows northward along the western coast of southern Africa (Namibia and South Africa), bringing cold Antarctic water to the surface and creating one of the world's richest fishing grounds. The Peru Current (also called the Humboldt Current) is a cold current that flows northward along the western coast of South America, responsible for the cold Atacama Desert climate and rich anchovy fisheries. Statement 1 is incorrect — the Labrador Current is a cold current, not warm; it flows southward from the Arctic along the eastern coast of Canada and the northeastern USA, causing cold fogs off Newfoundland and the iceberg hazard zone.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. India holds the world's largest reserves of mica — predominantly in the "mica belt" stretching across Jharkhand, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana; India is also a leading exporter of mica. Rajasthan is the dominant producer of lead-zinc ore in India, with Hindustan Zinc Limited's Rampura-Agucha mine (Rajsamand) being one of the world's largest zinc mines. Statement 2 is incorrect — Chhattisgarh is the leading coal-producing state in India, surpassing Jharkhand; Odisha and Madhya Pradesh are also significant producers. Jharkhand was historically the top producer but has been overtaken.

Only two pairs are correctly matched. (I) The Strait of Malacca lies between the Malay Peninsula (Malaysia/Thailand) and the Indonesian island of Sumatra — correctly matched. (III) The Palk Strait separates Tamil Nadu (India) from the Northern Province of Sri Lanka — correctly matched. (II) The Bass Strait is incorrect — it separates the Australian mainland (Victoria) from the island of Tasmania, which is also part of Australia; it does not separate Australia from New Zealand. Cook Strait separates New Zealand's North and South Islands.

The 'Dancing Girl' figurine from Mohenjo-daro is made of bronze and was created using the lost-wax (cire perdue) casting technique. It is approximately 10.5 cm tall and is currently housed in the National Museum, New Delhi. The figurine dates to around 2300–1750 BCE.

Fa-hien (Faxian) visited India between 399–414 CE during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya). He recorded his observations in 'Record of Buddhist Kingdoms'. His account provides valuable information about the Gupta era — he noted that the people were prosperous, the administration mild, and capital punishment rare.

Rajendra I (Chola) launched a famous naval expedition around 1025 CE against the Srivijaya kingdom. He dispatched a large naval fleet across the Bay of Bengal and captured several ports and trading centres in South-East Asia. This expedition is considered one of the greatest overseas military operations in Indian history and demonstrated the power of the Chola navy.

According to Ashoka's Rock Edict III, the Pradeshika, Rajuka, and Yukta were officials posted at the district (Ahara or Vishaya) level. The Pradeshika was the head of the district, the Rajuka was responsible for assessment and collection of revenue and had judicial powers, and the Yukta was the accountant or subordinate official. They were instructed to tour their districts every five years to spread dhamma and administer justice.

Asmaka was located on the banks of the Godavari (correct). Kamboja was in the northwest, associated with the Vipas/Beas (correct). Avanti was in central India (modern Madhya Pradesh) associated with the Sipra river, NOT the Mahanadi (incorrect). Kosala was associated with the Sarayu river (correct). Thus three pairs are correctly matched.

Three items were part of the Non-Cooperation Programme (1920–22): boycott of law-courts, boycott of foreign cloth, observance of non-violence, and establishment of Panchayats for disputes were all included. However, retaining titles while not using them was NOT part of the programme — the programme called for surrendering titles altogether. So Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct; Statement 3 is not part of the programme. Thus, only three are correct.

After the Chauri Chaura incident (4 February 1922), in which a mob burned a police station killing 22 policemen, 228 people were arrested. Madan Mohan Malaviya led the legal defence team and is credited with saving 151 of the 172 condemned men from the gallows. Malaviya's remarkable legal efforts became legendary in the nationalist movement. The British had initially sentenced 172 people to death.

The Self-Respect Movement was founded by E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar) in 1925 in Tamil Nadu. The movement challenged Brahminical dominance, caste discrimination, and the subordination of women in Tamil society. It promoted rationalism, atheism, and social equality. Periyar later founded the Dravidar Kazhagam (DK) party and is considered the father of the Dravidian movement.

Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar founded the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore (now Pakistan) in 1901. The institution was a pioneering effort to systematise Hindustani classical music education and make it accessible beyond the traditional guru-shishya parampara. Paluskar later established branches in Mumbai (1908) and other cities. The Lahore institution was the first of its kind.

Ashokan inscriptions (particularly Rock Edict III) refer to the Pradesika (district officer in charge of revenue and general administration), Rajuka (judicial official responsible for awarding punishments and revenue), and Yukta (subordinate secretary or accountant) as officers operating at the district (janapada) level. The Rajuka's role was especially highlighted by Ashoka when he granted them independent judicial powers (from the 13th year of his reign) to administer justice to the rural population without referring every matter to the centre.

Rajendra Chola I (r. 1014–1044 CE), son of the great Rajaraja Chola I, launched a spectacular naval expedition circa 1025 CE against the Srivijaya Empire — a powerful maritime kingdom controlling the Strait of Malacca (in present-day Indonesia and Malaysia). The campaign resulted in the capture of several Srivijayan ports and the seizure of immense wealth. This Chola naval expedition remains one of the most remarkable examples of Indian maritime power in medieval history. Port Blair (now renamed Sri Vijaya Puram) is named after this campaign.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Ram Mohan Roy was a rationalist and rejected the infallibility of any single scripture. He believed in a rational, monotheistic interpretation of religion drawing from Vedanta, the Quran, and Christian Unitarianism — but did not consider any text infallible. Statement 2 is correct: He strongly opposed idol worship and polytheism, arguing in "Tuhfatul Muwahhiddin" (Gift to Monotheists, 1804) and through the Brahmo Samaj (1828) that the worship of one formless God was the original Vedantic truth. Statement 3 is correct: Roy campaigned vigorously against Sati (resulting in its abolition in 1829) and supported women's education; he also advocated widow remarriage and inheritance rights for women.

The NATURE RESTORATION LAW (NRL) was enacted by the EUROPEAN UNION as a landmark regulation to reverse ecosystem degradation across Europe. It is the FIRST CONTINENT-WIDE comprehensive law of its kind. KEY FACTS: (a) ENACTMENT — Adopted by the European Parliament in February 2024 and formally entered into force in August 2024. (b) BINDING TARGETS — EU Member States must restore at least 20% of EU land and sea areas by 2030, with the long-term goal of restoring all ecosystems in need by 2050. (c) ECOSYSTEMS COVERED — Wetlands, forests, rivers, grasslands, marine habitats, urban green spaces, and agricultural lands. (d) SPECIFIC TARGETS: Reverse pollinator decline by 2030; restore drained peatlands; remove river barriers to free-flow at least 25,000 km of rivers; increase tree canopy cover in urban areas; restore degraded marine habitats. (e) NATIONAL PLANS — Each Member State must prepare and implement national nature restoration plans within 2 years. WHY IT MATTERS: The NRL is unprecedented in its scope and binding nature. It directly addresses the dual crises of CLIMATE CHANGE (restored ecosystems sequester carbon) and BIODIVERSITY LOSS (~80% of European habitats are in poor condition). It supports the EU Biodiversity Strategy 2030 and the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework adopted at COP15 in December 2022. CONTROVERSY: The law was strongly opposed by conservative groups, farmers, and the European People's Party, who feared it would harm food production and farmers' livelihoods. It passed by a narrow margin. Despite political resistance, environmental NGOs hailed it as a major victory. (b) WORLD BANK — Provides finance, not legislation. (c) OECD — Sets policy guidelines but no binding nature law. (d) FAO — UN body for food and agriculture, no nature restoration law. UPSC 2025 official answer: A.

Statement 2 is correct; statement 1 is incorrect (a common misconception). (1) TROPICAL RAINFORESTS PRODUCE MOST OXYGEN — INCORRECT. The popular notion that the Amazon rainforest is the "lungs of the Earth" producing 20% of the world's oxygen is a MISCONCEPTION. Tropical rainforests are biodiversity reservoirs and important carbon sinks, but they are NOT the primary source of atmospheric oxygen. In fact, tropical rainforests CONSUME nearly all the oxygen they produce — through plant respiration at night, microbial decomposition of dead matter on the forest floor, and animal respiration. The NET oxygen contribution of mature rainforests is close to ZERO over the long term (they are roughly carbon-neutral and oxygen-neutral on multi-year timescales). New growth or regrowth forests do produce net oxygen, but mature standing rainforests do not. (2) OCEANS PRODUCE MAJORITY OF OXYGEN — CORRECT. The OCEANS — through PHOTOSYNTHESIS by marine phytoplankton, cyanobacteria, and other photosynthetic microorganisms — produce approximately 50-80% of Earth's atmospheric oxygen. The most important oxygen-producing organism is CYANOBACTERIUM PROCHLOROCOCCUS, the smallest free-living photosynthetic organism on Earth, which alone contributes ~5% of global oxygen production despite being invisible to the naked eye. Marine diatoms, dinoflagellates, and other phytoplankton add the rest. PHOTOSYNTHESIS by these microscopic organisms in the surface ocean (the photic zone, top ~200 m) splits water (H₂O) using sunlight to produce glucose and release oxygen (O₂). The total ocean photosynthetic biomass (mostly microscopic) exceeds total terrestrial biomass in productivity per unit area. THREATS: Ocean acidification, warming, plastic pollution, oxygen-depleted dead zones, and microplastic ingestion threaten phytoplankton populations and thus the planet's oxygen supply. The "Atlantic Ocean as Earth's lungs" framing is more accurate than the Amazon framing. The Earth's oxygen reservoir built up over billions of years (since the Great Oxidation Event ~2.4 billion years ago) and current production roughly balances respiratory consumption. UPSC 2025 official answer: B.

Option D (II and III) is CORRECT. Statement I is INCORRECT. The PEACOCK TARANTULA, scientifically known as POECILOTHERIA METALLICA and also called the Gooty Sapphire Ornamental Tree Spider, is an ARACHNID (a SPIDER) — NOT a crustacean. Crustaceans are a different arthropod group that includes crabs, lobsters, and shrimps. Tarantulas are also CARNIVOROUS predators, not omnivores — they feed mainly on insects, small lizards, frogs, and other small prey. Statement II is CORRECT. The Peacock tarantula is ENDEMIC to a tiny patch of degraded deciduous forest in southern India — specifically the Reserve Forest near GOOTY in the Eastern Ghats of ANDHRA PRADESH (extending into the Nallamala forest region). Its known wild range is less than 100 square kilometres — among the most restricted ranges of any tarantula species in the world. Statement III is CORRECT. The Peacock tarantula is an ARBOREAL species — it lives in TREE HOLES, crevices, and bark cavities of old-growth forest trees, where it builds asymmetrical funnel webs as retreats. It rarely descends to the ground. CONSERVATION STATUS: IUCN Red List — CRITICALLY ENDANGERED. Listed in Schedule II of India's Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 (after the 2022 amendment). Major threats: habitat loss from logging and timber harvesting, degradation of its tiny range, and the international illegal pet trade — its striking metallic blue colouration makes it highly prized among exotic pet collectors. Schedule II protection prohibits unauthorised collection. UPSC 2025 official answer: D.

Option C (II and III only) is CORRECT. Statement I is INCORRECT. India's per capita CO2 emissions in 2023-24 were approximately 2.0 tonnes CO2/capita — significantly HIGHER than 0.5 tonnes. While India's per capita emissions remain MUCH LOWER than the United States (~14.5 t/capita), China (~8 t/capita), or the global average (~4.7 t/capita), the figure of "less than 0.5 t CO2/capita" is grossly inaccurate. Statement II is CORRECT. India is the SECOND-LARGEST emitter of CO2 from fuel combustion in the Asia-Pacific region, after CHINA which is the world's largest emitter. India is the world's 3rd largest emitter overall (after China and the United States) — accounting for ~7-8% of global CO2 emissions, though only 17% of the world's population. Statement III is CORRECT. The ELECTRICITY AND HEAT GENERATION sector is the LARGEST source of CO2 emissions in India, accounting for over 50% of India's energy-related CO2 emissions. This is because India's electricity generation remains heavily dependent on COAL — with approximately 70% of India's electricity generated from coal-fired thermal power plants in 2024-25. Other major sources: industry (cement, steel, manufacturing), transport, agriculture. INDIA'S CLIMATE COMMITMENTS: Under its updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC, 2022), India committed to reduce its emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030 (from 2005 levels), achieve about 50% non-fossil installed power capacity by 2030, and reach NET-ZERO by 2070. UPSC 2025 official answer: C.

Option C (All three) is CORRECT. DIRECT AIR CAPTURE (DAC) is an emerging climate technology that uses chemical processes to extract CO2 directly from the AMBIENT ATMOSPHERE — unlike conventional carbon capture which extracts CO2 from concentrated point sources like power plant flue gases. DAC plants use giant fans to draw air over chemical solvents (potassium hydroxide or amine-based) or solid sorbents that bind to CO2; the captured CO2 is then concentrated and either stored geologically or used. Statement I is CORRECT. DAC enables CARBON SEQUESTRATION — the captured CO2 can be permanently injected into deep geological formations (saline aquifers, depleted oil/gas reservoirs, basalt rock where it mineralises into stable carbonate). The Climeworks Orca and Mammoth plants in Iceland inject CO2 into basalt rock, achieving permanent storage. Statement II is CORRECT. The captured CO2 can be USED as a feedstock for industrial processes — plastics manufacturing (CO2-based polymers), food and beverage industry (fizzy drinks, dry ice, greenhouse cultivation enrichment), chemical industry (urea, methanol, formic acid), and concrete curing. This is called CARBON UTILISATION (CCU). Statement III is CORRECT. DAC-derived CO2 combined with hydrogen (ideally from renewable electrolysis) can be used to synthesise SUSTAINABLE AVIATION FUELS (SAF) — also called e-fuels or power-to-liquid (PtL) fuels. These synthetic kerosene equivalents can be used in existing jet engines and offer one of the most promising decarbonisation routes for aviation, which is otherwise hard to electrify. KEY DAC PROJECTS: Climeworks (Iceland), Carbon Engineering (Canada), Heirloom (USA). The IEA estimates DAC capacity must scale from ~10,000 tonnes/year today to gigatonne scale by 2050 to meet net-zero targets. UPSC 2025 official answer: C.

Option B (II only) is CORRECT. Statement I is INCORRECT. The popular claim that "the Amazon produces 20% of the world's oxygen" or that "rainforests produce most of the world's oxygen" is a MYTH widely repeated in media but scientifically inaccurate. While tropical rainforests do produce vast amounts of oxygen via photosynthesis, they ALSO consume nearly all of it through respiration of plants, animals, soil microbes, and decomposition of organic matter. The NET oxygen contribution of mature rainforests to the atmosphere is close to ZERO. The Amazon's ecological importance lies in biodiversity, carbon storage (in biomass), water cycle regulation, and climate regulation — NOT in being the "lungs of the Earth" in any literal sense. Statement II is CORRECT. MARINE PHYTOPLANKTON — microscopic photosynthetic organisms (cyanobacteria, diatoms, dinoflagellates, coccolithophores) drifting in the upper sunlit layers of oceans — produce APPROXIMATELY 50% of the Earth's oxygen via photosynthesis. This is the most important fact about global oxygen production: the oceans, not forests, are the primary source. The cyanobacterium PROCHLOROCOCCUS alone is the most abundant photosynthesiser on Earth and may produce up to 20% of all the oxygen in the atmosphere. Climate change, ocean acidification, warming, and pollution are threatening phytoplankton populations — a global phytoplankton decline of ~40% since 1950 has been documented. Statement III is INCORRECT. The reverse is true. AIR contains approximately 21% oxygen by volume (~210,000 ppm). Even the most well-oxygenated surface seawater contains only ~8 ppm dissolved oxygen at 20°C — i.e., AIR contains thousands of times MORE oxygen than water. This is why fish use efficient gills and have to constantly pump water across them. UPSC 2025 official answer: B.

All three statements are correct. Article 6 of the Paris Agreement governs cooperative approaches and carbon markets — it has been the most contentious and frequently debated article, with rulebook negotiations extending from COP24 through COP26 (Glasgow). Article 6.2 and 6.4 set up cooperative approaches and international carbon credit mechanisms respectively; Article 6.8 covers non-market approaches. Final rules were agreed at COP26 (2021).

Statements I and III are correct. India did not sign the COP28 Health Declaration at COP28 (Dubai, December 2023), citing concerns about its potential impact on climate adaptation strategies. The Declaration's emphasis on rapid decarbonization, critics argue, may trade off against building climate resilience in vulnerable developing countries (Statement III). Statement II is incorrect — the Declaration is a voluntary, non-binding political commitment, not a legally binding treaty.

Only Statement II is correct. Marine phytoplankton and cyanobacteria (photosynthetic bacteria) produce approximately 50% of Earth's oxygen — more than tropical rainforests produce, making Statement I incorrect. Statement III is also incorrect — atmospheric air contains about 21% oxygen (by volume), whereas dissolved oxygen in surface water is around 7-10 mg/L — far less than the oxygen concentration in air, not several times more.

All three statements are correct. Activated carbon (activated charcoal) is widely used in water and air purification to adsorb organic pollutants, heavy metals, and toxins (Statement I). Its extremely porous structure gives it a very high surface area (up to 3000 m²/g) enabling strong adsorption of heavy metals like lead, mercury and arsenic (Statement II). It can be produced from various carbon-rich agricultural and industrial wastes including coconut shells, bamboo, rice husks and wood (Statement III).

Only Statement III is correct per the UPSC 2025 answer key. DAC captures CO₂ from the atmosphere, but the captured CO₂ used to make synthetic aviation fuel (power-to-liquid or e-fuels) is a verified application. Statement I seems correct but is not considered correct in the context of this question (DAC alone is not permanent sequestration unless CO₂ is injected underground). Statement II is incorrect — while CO₂ can be used in beverages and greenhouses, "plastic production" is not a primary DAC application.

All three contain plastic. Cigarette filter butts are made of cellulose acetate, a form of plastic — they are the most abundant plastic pollutant by count globally. Eyeglass lenses are typically made of polycarbonate or other optical-grade polymers (plastics). Car tyres contain synthetic rubber (styrene-butadiene rubber), which is a polymer — technically a form of plastic. Tyre wear particles are a major source of microplastic pollution in waterways.

Statements II and III are correct. The Peacock tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica) is a spider (class Arachnida), not a crustacean, and it is carnivorous — Statement I is wrong on both counts. Its range is extremely restricted: it occurs only in fragmented deciduous forest patches of Andhra Pradesh, particularly around the Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve, making Statement II correct. It is arboreal, inhabiting tree hollows and loose bark, making Statement III correct. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List owing to habitat loss and collection for the pet trade.

Statement-I is incorrect as framed — the World Bank warning specifically concerns the direct threat to human survival from extreme humid heat (wet-bulb temperature exceeding 35°C), not primarily flooding, cyclones, or droughts. Statement-II is correct: 35°C wet-bulb temperature is the physiological upper survival limit because at this threshold evaporative cooling through sweating fails to dissipate body heat even in perfect shade with unlimited water, leading to fatal hyperthermia within hours. Wet-bulb temperature integrates both air temperature and relative humidity, making it a more accurate measure of heat stress than temperature alone.

All three statements are correct. A circular economy is a production and consumption model that keeps resources in use as long as possible through reuse, repair, remanufacturing, and recycling — contrasted with the conventional linear "take-make-dispose" economy. By eliminating the energy-intensive extraction and processing of virgin raw materials, it reduces greenhouse gas emissions (Statement 1). It directly reduces raw material consumption through design for longevity, product-as-a-service models, and material recycling (Statement 2). By designing out waste and keeping materials circulating, it minimises production-stage waste (Statement 3). Key frameworks include the EU Circular Economy Action Plan and India's Extended Producer Responsibility rules under the Plastic Waste Management Rules.

Only Statement 2 is correct. Marine phytoplankton, cyanobacteria, and algae collectively produce approximately 50% of Earth's oxygen through photosynthesis — oceans, not rainforests, are the dominant oxygen source globally (Statement 2 correct). Statement 1 is incorrect: while tropical rainforests are major oxygen producers, they also consume nearly all of it in cellular respiration; ocean organisms produce the larger net share. Statement 3 is incorrect: water contains approximately 8 mg of dissolved oxygen per litre, whereas the same volume of air contains roughly 270 mg of oxygen — air has far more oxygen per unit volume than water.

All three statements are correct. Article 6 of the Paris Agreement (2015) governs cooperative approaches that allow countries to pursue their NDCs more ambitiously. It is central to climate finance and carbon market discussions (Statement 1). Article 6.2 enables bilateral trading of Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs) and Article 6.4 establishes a multilateral carbon crediting mechanism, collectively setting out carbon market principles (Statement 2). Article 6.8 and 6.9 cover non-market approaches including technology transfer, capacity building, and mitigation co-benefits, promoting inter-country cooperation beyond markets (Statement 3). A complete rulebook for Article 6 was finalised at COP29 in Baku in November 2024.

All three statements are correct. Global cement production accounts for approximately 7–8% of global CO₂ emissions — the third-largest industrial source — making Statement 1 correct. In cement manufacturing, the raw mix comprises limestone, silica-bearing clay (or shale), iron ore, and alumina in specific proportions before kiln firing; Statement 2 is correct. During clinker production, limestone undergoes calcination at ~1450°C: CaCO₃ → CaO (quicklime) + CO₂; this calcination process alone accounts for roughly 60% of cement's total CO₂ emissions, making Statement 3 correct. Decarbonising cement requires carbon capture, alternative clinker chemistries, and blended cements.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect: India's per capita CO₂ emissions are approximately 1.9 tonnes per capita (IEA data), not less than 0.5 tonne. Within the Asia-Pacific region, India is the second-largest CO₂ emitter after China in terms of fuel combustion emissions, making Statement 2 correct. India's electricity and heat production sector (predominantly coal-fired thermal power plants) accounts for over 53% of sectoral CO₂ emissions, making it the dominant source — Statement 3 is correct. India is also the third-largest CO₂ emitter globally, after China and the USA.

All three missions support microgravity research. Axiom-4 is Axiom Space's fourth commercial mission to the ISS (scheduled 2025), carrying Indian astronaut Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla, with over 25 experiments in human health, space agriculture, and biotechnology under microgravity conditions. SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment), launched by ISRO on PSLV-C60 in December 2024, demonstrated in-orbit docking and conducted microgravity experiments through the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM-4), including plant growth studies and radiation measurements. Gaganyaan — India's crewed orbital programme — will carry biological and physical science experiments designed specifically for microgravity conditions once operational, making India the fourth country to conduct crewed spaceflight. (UPSC Prelims 2025; verified answer: All three.)

Statements I and II are correct. GAGAN (GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation) is a Satellite-Based Augmentation System (SBAS) developed jointly by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India. It augments the US GPS signal by correcting for ionospheric and other errors, providing accuracy of ±3 metres — essential for precision approaches and landing in civil aviation. It also enables more uniform, efficient air traffic management by supporting Required Navigation Performance (RNP) approaches. Statement III is incorrect: GAGAN provides benefits across multiple transport sectors beyond aviation — maritime navigation (certified by the Director General of Shipping), road transport, and geodetic surveying — wherever satellite positioning is used. (UPSC Prelims 2025; verified answer: I and II only.)

Statements I and III are correct. Statement II is incorrect. Majorana 1 was introduced by Microsoft — not Amazon Web Services — in February 2025. It is the world's first quantum chip powered by a Topological Core architecture, using topological qubits based on Majorana fermions. Topological qubits are inherently more stable and less error-prone than superconducting or photonic qubits, potentially enabling reliable quantum computing at scale. Statement III is correct: deep learning is a subfield of machine learning that uses artificial neural networks with many layers (hence "deep") to learn hierarchical representations of data, excelling at image recognition, NLP, and generative AI tasks. (UPSC Prelims 2025; verified answer: I and III only.)

All three statements are correct. Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-produced proteins engineered to mimic the immune system's ability to target a specific threat (statement I). They bind to specific antigens — proteins on the surface of pathogens or cancer cells — with high precision, triggering immune responses or blocking pathogen entry (statement II). mAbs have been used experimentally against Nipah virus; m102.4, a neutralising monoclonal antibody, has been used as a compassionate treatment during Nipah outbreaks and has been studied in Phase I clinical trials. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for cancer (trastuzumab for HER2+ breast cancer), autoimmune diseases (adalimumab for rheumatoid arthritis), and COVID-19 (statement III). (UPSC Prelims 2025; verified answer: I, II and III.)

CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (High Melting eXplosive, or cyclotetramethylene tetranitramine), and LLM-105 are all high-energy explosive compounds developed for military applications. CL-20, developed in the 1980s at the US Naval Air Weapons Station China Lake, is one of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives, offering higher detonation velocity and energy density than HMX or RDX. HMX is widely used in nuclear weapon triggers (implosion lenses), shaped charges, and solid rocket propellants. LLM-105 (2,6-diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide), synthesised at Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory, is an insensitive high explosive — it has high brisance but is less sensitive to accidental detonation, making it safer to handle. All three are periodic subjects of defence technology news in the context of next-generation munitions. (UPSC Prelims 2025; verified answer: Military weapon explosives.)

Statement I is correct. Prime Minister Narendra Modi co-chaired the AI Action Summit alongside French President Emmanuel Macron. The Paris summit was the third in a series of global AI governance summits: AI Safety Summit (Bletchley Park, UK, November 2023), AI Seoul Summit (May 2024), and the AI Action Summit (Paris, February 2025). Statement II is incorrect. Fifty-eight countries — including India, China, France, Brazil, and Australia — signed the joint declaration on Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet. However, the United States and the United Kingdom did not sign this declaration, opting to engage separately rather than endorse the multilateral statement. (UPSC Prelims 2025; verified answer: I only.)

Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched; pair 2 is not. Dornier-228 (HAL-built, licensed from Germany) is a twin-turboprop aircraft operated by the Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard for maritime patrol, surveillance, pollution monitoring, and search-and-rescue missions — correctly described. C-17 Globemaster III (Boeing) is a strategic heavy-lift military transport aircraft operated by the Indian Air Force for rapid deployment of troops, armoured vehicles, and heavy cargo — correctly described. The IL-76 (Ilyushin), operated by the Indian Air Force, is a four-engine strategic airlifter used for heavy cargo transport, humanitarian airlifts, and aerial refuelling — it is not a supersonic combat aircraft. Supersonic combat aircraft in India's fleet include the Su-30 MKI and Rafale. (UPSC Prelims 2025; verified answer: Only two.)

All three are alternative powertrain vehicles — a category that covers any vehicle not powered solely by a conventional internal combustion engine running on petrol or diesel. Full battery electric vehicles (BEVs) use electric motors powered entirely by battery packs charged from the grid. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles (FCEVs) generate electricity onboard from hydrogen via an electrochemical fuel cell reaction (emitting only water vapour), which drives an electric motor. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles combine a hydrogen fuel cell with a battery/supercapacitor to optimise energy use and recover braking energy. India's National Mission on Transformative Mobility and Battery Storage, and the PM E-DRIVE scheme, explicitly include all three categories under clean mobility targets. (UPSC Prelims 2025; verified answer: All three.)

Only Statement I is correct: BIMSTEC has seven members (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand). Statement II is incorrect — it was established by the Bangkok Declaration of 1997, not a 1999 Dhaka Declaration. Statement III is incorrect — founding members (1997) were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Myanmar; Nepal and Bhutan joined in 2004. Statement IV is incorrect — Nepal, not India, leads the tourism subsector in BIMSTEC.

The INSTC is a 7,200-km multimodal network (ship, rail, road) connecting India to Russia and Europe via Iran. Goods travel by ship from India to Iranian ports (Bandar Abbas/Chabahar), then by rail/road through Iran, Azerbaijan/Central Asia to Russia and onward to Europe. India, Iran, and Russia were the three founding members in 2000; it now has 13 member nations.

Statements I and II are correct. The 16th BRICS Summit was held from October 22–24, 2024 in Kazan, Russia, under Russia's chairmanship. Indonesia became the 10th full member of BRICS effective January 2025, becoming the first Southeast Asian nation to join. Statement III is incorrect: the official theme was "Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security" — the question substituted "Multiculturalism" for "Multilateralism", making it false.

Four of the six listed countries are NATO members: Bulgaria (joined 2004), Croatia (joined 2009), Sweden (joined March 2024 as 32nd member, ending 200 years of military non-alignment), and North Macedonia (joined 2020 as 30th member after the Prespa Agreement with Greece). Austria and Serbia are NOT NATO members — Austria is permanently neutral under the 1955 State Treaty, while Serbia has not applied for membership and maintains military neutrality.

Only Statement I is correct. The AI Action Summit (February 10–11, 2025) in Paris was co-chaired by France and India, following the Bletchley Park AI Safety Summit (UK, November 2023) and the Seoul AI Summit (South Korea, May 2024). Statement II is incorrect: the "Inclusive and Sustainable AI" joint statement was signed by 58 countries including India and China, but the United States and the United Kingdom did not sign, citing concerns about regulatory overreach and preferring a lighter-touch approach to AI governance.

The Gandhi Peace Prize jury consists of II (Prime Minister — who chairs the jury), III (Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by the CJI), and IV (Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha or the leader of the largest opposition party). The President of India (I) is NOT a member of the jury. The prize was instituted in 1995 on the 125th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi and is awarded annually to individuals and institutions for their contribution to social, economic, and political transformation through non-violent and other Gandhian methods. It carries a cash award of ₹1 crore.

Both statements are correct. Rashtriya Gokul Mission was launched in December 2014 under the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying. Statement I is correct: more than 80% of low-producing indigenous bovines are owned by small and marginal farmers and landless labourers — improving their productivity directly benefits rural poor households. Statement II is correct: the mission's core objective is to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds (such as Gir, Sahiwal, Rathi, Deoni, Tharparkar, and Red Sindhi) and conserve them in a scientific and holistic manner including through Integrated Indigenous Livestock Centres called Gokul Grams.

All three statements are correct. PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana was launched in February 2024 to provide free electricity to one crore households through rooftop solar installations (statement I correct). The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) runs a capacity-building component to train technicians at the grassroots level in installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of solar rooftop systems (statement II correct). The scheme targets creation of over 3 lakh skilled manpower through fresh skilling and up-skilling under its capacity building component (statement III correct). Eligible households with up to 2 kW installation receive 300 units of free electricity per month, with the central government subsidising ₹30,000 to ₹78,000 per household depending on system size.

All three statements are correct. FCORD (FICN Coordination Group) is an MHA body that coordinates intelligence among multiple agencies — IB, RAW, NTRO, NIA, BSF, Customs, and State Police — to detect and neutralise the smuggling and circulation of Fake Indian Currency Notes, which are primarily printed in Pakistan and used for destabilisation and terror financing (statement 1). The Golden Crescent (Afghanistan, Iran, Pakistan) is the world's largest opium-producing zone and the primary source of heroin entering India's Punjab, J&K, Rajasthan, and Gujarat through the Pakistan border, generating funds for cross-border terrorism (statement 2). The NIA Amendment Act, 2019 added human trafficking (under Sections 370 and 370A of IPC) to the schedule of offences that the NIA can investigate nationwide without requiring state consent (statement 3).

All three statements are correct. The National Cyber Security Coordinator (NCSC) was established in 2014 and is housed in the PMO to provide strategic direction and coordinate cybersecurity policies and initiatives across government ministries and agencies (statement 1). CERT-In was established in 2004 under Section 70B of the IT Act, 2000 (amended 2008) and operates under MeitY, functioning as the national nodal agency for cybersecurity incident response, threat intelligence, and issuance of advisories and directives (statement 2). NCIIPC was designated as the national nodal agency for protecting India's critical information infrastructure under Section 70A of the IT Act, and functions as an attached office of NTRO under the PMO, dealing with threats to power grids, banking systems, telecom networks, and government databases (statement 3).

All three statements are correct. Cross-border smuggling by drones has emerged as a major security challenge, particularly along India's borders with Pakistan — with BSF routinely intercepting drones carrying heroin, arms, and FICN in Punjab and Jammu — and is highlighted in MHA annual reports as a primary security threat (statement 1). The Drone Rules, 2021 (replacing the earlier UAS Rules, 2021) mandate registration of all drones (except nano drones below 250 g) on the Digital Sky Platform — a government portal for drone operations — to regulate airspace and enhance accountability (statement 2). Counter-drone (C-UAS) technology encompasses a layered approach: radar and RF detection (detect), jamming and spoofing (neutralise electronically), and kinetic options including laser-directed energy weapons, net guns, and trained eagles — all deployed by security forces in sensitive zones including airports, military bases, and border areas (statement 3).

All three statements are correct. Cyber terrorism, as understood in international law and Indian security doctrine, involves attacks on critical computer systems, networks, or data with intent to intimidate or coerce governments or populations — analogous to physical terrorism in its disruptive impact on essential services (statement 1). Section 66F of the IT Act (inserted by the IT Amendment Act, 2008) specifically penalises cyber terrorism — defined as accessing protected computer systems with intent to threaten national security or cause death/injuries or damage to property — with imprisonment up to life (statement 2). Intelligence agencies worldwide, including IB and RAW, have documented ISIS and other groups systematically using platforms like Telegram, TikTok (before India's ban), and the dark web to recruit, radicalise, and mobilise individuals — including in India, where several radicalisation cases have been investigated by the NIA (statement 3).

Three of the four typically make up EV battery cathodes: Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel. Common cathode chemistries include NMC (Nickel-Manganese-Cobalt) and NCA (Nickel-Cobalt-Aluminium). Graphite is used in the anode (negative electrode), not the cathode. Efforts are underway to reduce cobalt content due to supply chain and ethical concerns.

None of the statements are correct. Statement I is false — vast numbers of viruses (bacteriophages and others) survive and thrive in oceans; marine viruses are among the most abundant biological entities on Earth. Statement II is false — bacteriophages are viruses that specifically infect bacteria; they are extensively used in phage therapy. Statement III is false — many viruses (e.g., HIV, herpesviruses) actively alter host cell transcription by producing viral proteins that hijack the host's gene expression machinery.

Only two — Ethanol and Urea — can be produced via coal gasification. Coal gasification produces syngas (H₂ + CO), which can be converted to ethanol via fermentation of syngas or Fischer-Tropsch synthesis. Urea is produced from ammonia (via syngas → ammonia synthesis) and CO₂ also derived from gasification. Nitroglycerine is produced by nitration of glycerol using nitric and sulphuric acids — it has no pathway from coal gasification.

Statements I and III are correct. Majorana 1 is Microsoft's topological quantum chip, introduced in February 2025, designed to enable scalable quantum computing using topological qubits based on Majorana fermions. Statement II is incorrect — it was developed by Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services. Statement III is correct — deep learning uses multi-layered artificial neural networks and is a specialised subset of the broader machine learning field.

All three statements are correct. Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-produced proteins designed to mimic the immune system's antibodies (Statement I). Each mAb is engineered to bind to one specific antigen — the precision targeting is what makes them therapeutically valuable (Statement II). mAbs have been developed or explored for treatment of viral diseases including Ebola, COVID-19 (e.g., sotrovimab) and Nipah virus, where m102.4 (anti-Nipah mAb) has shown promise in clinical trials (Statement III).

Statements I and II are correct. GAGAN is India's Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) developed jointly by ISRO and AAI; it enhances GPS accuracy and integrity for precision navigation (Statement I) and improves air traffic management, enabling more efficient flight paths (Statement II). Statement III is incorrect — GAGAN benefits extend beyond aviation to railways, maritime navigation, disaster management, precision agriculture, and surveying applications.

All three are considered alternative powertrain vehicles — vehicles that do not rely on conventional internal combustion engines burning petrol or diesel. Full Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs) run entirely on electricity stored in onboard batteries. Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles (FCEVs) generate electricity onboard via an electrochemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen in a fuel cell, emitting only water vapour. Fuel Cell Electric Hybrid Vehicles combine a hydrogen fuel cell with a battery and electric motor. All three are recognised by international bodies including the IEA and the EU as alternative powertrain technologies aligned with net-zero transport goals.

None of the statements are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect: fixed-wing UAVs (like many military reconnaissance drones) require a runway or launcher for take-off and landing — only rotary-wing and VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) designs can perform vertical landing. Statement 2 is incorrect: only multirotor and certain VTOL UAVs can hover; fixed-wing UAVs must remain in forward flight to generate lift and cannot hover. Statement 3 is incorrect: while many small civilian UAVs use lithium-polymer batteries, larger military and long-endurance UAVs use internal combustion engines (petrol, diesel), turbines, or hybrid power systems; some experimental UAVs use solar power or hydrogen fuel cells.

Both statements are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Rare earth elements (REEs) such as europium, terbium, and yttrium have phosphorescent (luminescent) properties — they emit visible light when excited by radiation. This property is exploited in flat-panel displays: europium produces red phosphor, terbium produces green phosphor, and these are essential components in LCD backlights and OLED displays. REEs are also used in CRT monitors and energy-efficient lighting (fluorescent lamps). China dominates global REE production (approximately 60–70%), making supply chain security a strategic concern for electronics manufacturing worldwide.

CL-20 (hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (High Melting Explosive, also called octogen), and LLM-105 (2,6-diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide) are all high-energy explosive compounds used in military weapons. CL-20 is one of the most energetic known non-nuclear explosives, used in advanced warheads. HMX is a powerful secondary explosive used in nuclear weapon implosion components, rocket propellants, and plastic explosives like C-4. LLM-105 is a thermally stable, insensitive high explosive suitable for use in demanding military applications. They are distinct from propellants (which deflagrate) and are classified as secondary high explosives (which detonate).

All three missions support scientific research in microgravity. Axiom-4 is a private astronaut mission to the International Space Station (ISS) that includes Indian astronaut Shubhanshu Shukla (ISRO) and is scheduled to conduct microgravity experiments aboard the ISS in 2025. SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) is ISRO's mission to demonstrate orbital rendezvous and docking — a prerequisite technology for Gaganyaan and future space station operations where microgravity research takes place. Gaganyaan is India's crewed spaceflight programme; the orbital module will carry scientific payloads for microgravity experiments as part of its mission objectives. Microgravity research supports advances in materials science, biology, medicine, and fluid dynamics.